CPL Prac Questions Sec 1.

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CPL Prac Questions Sec 1. Empty CPL Prac Questions Sec 1.

Post  Admin on Thu Dec 03, 2009 3:56 am

If an aircraft is not equipped with an electrical or anticollision light system, no person may operate that aircraft
A) 1 hour after sunset.
B) after sunset to sunrise.
C) after dark.

What is the approximate base of the cumulus clouds if the temperature at 2,000 feet MSL is 10 °C. and the dewpoint is 1 °C?
A) 3,000 feet MSL.
B) 6,000 feet MSL.
C) 4,000 feet MSL.

When the CDI needle is centered during an airborne VOR check, the omnibearing selector should read
A) 0° TO, only if you are due south of the VOR.
B) within 6° of the selected radial.
C) within 4° of the selected radial.

Which cloud types would indicate convective turbulence?
A) Nimbostratus clouds.
B) Towering cumulus clouds.
C) Cirrus clouds.

If clouds form as a result of very stable, moist air being forced to ascend a mountain slope, the clouds will be
A) cumulus type with considerable vertical development and turbulence.
B) stratus type with little vertical development and little or no turbulence.
C) cirrus type with no vertical development or turbulence.

An aircraft carrying passengers for hire has been on a schedule of inspection every 100 hours of time in service. Under which condition, if any, may that aircraft be operated beyond 100 hours without a new inspection?
A) The 100-hour limitation may be exceeded by not more than 10 hours if necessary to reach a place at which the inspection can be done.
B) The aircraft may be dispatched for a flight of any duration as long as 100 hours has not been exceeded at the time it departs.
C) The aircraft may be flown for any flight as long as the time in service has not exceeded 110 hours.

Pilots, who change their permanent mailing address, and fail to notify the FAA Airmen Certification Branch of this change, are entitled to exercise the privileges of their pilot certificate for a period of
A) 30 days.
B) 60 days.
C) 90 days.

A pilot convicted for the violation of any Federal or State statute relating to the process, manufacture, transportation, distribution, or sale of narcotic drugs is grounds for
A) a written report to be filed with the FAA Civil Aviation Security Division (AMC-700) not later than 60 days after the conviction.
B) suspension or revocation of any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under 14 CFR part 61.
C) notification of this conviction to the FAA Civil Aeromedical Institute (CAMI) within 60 days after the conviction.

From which measurement of the atmosphere can stability be determined?
A) The ambient lapse rate.
B) Atmospheric pressure.
C) The dry adiabatic lapse rate.

The general circulation of air associated with a high-pressure area in the Northern Hemisphere is
A) outward, downward, and clockwise.
B) outward, upward, and clockwise.
C) inward, downward, and clockwise.

During an approach, the most important and most easily recognized means of being alerted to possible wind shear is monitoring the
A) power and vertical velocity required to remain on the proper glidepath.
B) amount of trim required to relieve control pressures.
C) heading changes necessary to remain on the runway centerline.

Virga is best described as
A) turbulent areas beneath cumulonimbus clouds.
B) streamers of precipitation trailing beneath clouds which evaporates before reaching the ground.
C) wall cloud torrents trailing beneath cumulonimbus clouds which dissipate before reaching the ground.

In accordance with 14 CFR part 91, supplemental oxygen must be used by the required minimum flightcrew for that time exceeding 30 minutes while at cabin pressure altitudes of
A) 12,000 feet MSL up to and including 18,000 feet MSL.
B) 10,500 feet MSL up to and including 12,500 feet MSL.
C) 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL.

Which is true regarding pilot certification requirements for operations in Class B airspace?
A) Solo student pilot operations are not authorized.
B) The pilot in command must hold at least a private pilot certificate.
C) The pilot in command must hold at least a private pilot certificate with an instrument rating.

To obtain a continuous transcribed weather briefing including winds aloft and route forecasts for a cross-country flight, a pilot could monitor
A) a high-frequency radio receiver tuned to En Route Flight Advisory Service.
B) the regularly scheduled weather broadcast on a VOR frequency.
C) a TWEB on a low-frequency and/or VOR receiver.

Pilots are required to have the anti-collision light system operating
A) during all types of operations, both day and night.
B) anytime an engine is in operation.
C) anytime the pilot is in the cockpit.

Which situation would most likely result in freezing precipitation? Rain falling from air which has a temperature of
A) 32 °F or less into air having a temperature of more than 32 °F.
B) more than 32 °F into air having a temperature of 32 °F or less.
C) 0 °C or less into air having a temperature of 0 °C or more.

What person is directly responsible for the final authority as to the operation of the airplane?
A) Airplane owner/operator.
B) Certificate holder.
C) Pilot in command.

When flying into a low-pressure area in the Northern Hemisphere, the wind direction and velocity will be from the
A) left and increasing.
B) left and decreasing.
C) right and decreasing.

Which weather chart depicts conditions forecast to exist at a specific time in the future?
A) Freezing Level Chart.
B) 12-Hour Significant Weather Prognostic Chart.
C) Weather Depiction Chart.

A situation most conducive to the formation of advection fog is
A) a warm, moist air mass settling over a cool surface under no-wind conditions.
B) a light breeze moving colder air over a water surface.
C) an air mass moving inland from the coastline during the winter.

Which would most likely result in hyperventilation?
A) Insufficient carbon dioxide.
B) Excessive carbon monoxide.
C) Insufficient oxygen.

Ice pellets encountered during flight normally are evidence that
A) a warm front has passed.
B) a warm front is about to pass.
C) there are thunderstorms in the area.

To scan properly for traffic, a pilot should
A) concentrate on any peripheral movement detected.
B) use a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements that bring successive areas of the sky into the central visual field.
C) slowly sweep the field of vision from one side to the other at intervals.

What causes wind?
A) Air mass modification.
B) Pressure differences.
C) The Earth's rotation.

The maximum cumulative time that an emergency locator transmitter may be operated before the rechargeable battery must be recharged is
A) 60 minutes.
B) 30 minutes.
C) 45 minutes.

What is an important characteristic of wind shear?
A) It is present at any level and exists in only a vertical direction.
B) It is present at only lower levels and exists in a horizontal direction.
C) It can be present at any level and can exist in both a horizontal and vertical direction.

Which is true regarding a cold front occlusion? The air ahead of the warm front
A) is warmer than the air behind the overtaking cold front.
B) is colder than the air behind the overtaking cold front.
C) has the same temperature as the air behind the overtaking cold front.

Aircraft maintenance records must include the current status of the
A) life-limited parts of each airframe, engine, propeller, rotor, and appliance.
B) life-limited parts of only the engine and airframe.
C) applicable airworthiness certificate.

With respect to vortex circulation, which is true?
A) The vortex strength is greatest when the generating aircraft is flying fast.
B) Helicopters generate downwash turbulence, not vortex circulation.
C) Vortex circulation generated by helicopters in forward flight trail behind in a manner similar to wingtip vortices generated by airplanes.

The formation of either predominantly stratiform or predominantly cumuliform clouds is dependent upon the
A) temperature of the air being lifted.
B) stability of the air being lifted.
C) source of lift.

While flying cross-country, in the Northern Hemisphere, you experience a continuous left crosswind which is associated with a major wind system. This indicates that you
A) cannot determine weather conditions without knowing pressure changes.
B) have flown from an area of unfavorable weather conditions.
C) are flying toward an area of generally unfavorable weather conditions.

What flight time must be documented and recorded by a pilot exercising the privileges of a commercial certificate?
A) Flight time showing training and aeronautical experience to meet requirements for a certificate, rating or flight review.
B) All flight time flown for compensation or hire.
C) Only flight time for compensation or hire with passengers aboard which is necessary to meet the recent flight experience requirements.

To serve as second in command of an airplane that is certificated for more than one pilot crewmember, and operated under part 91, a person must
A) within the last 12 months become familiar with the required information, and perform and log pilot time in the type of airplane for which privileges are requested.
B) receive and log flight training from an authorized flight instructor in the type of airplane for which privileges are requested.
C) hold at least a commercial pilot certificate with an airplane category rating.

While in flight a helicopter and an airplane are converging at a 90° angle, and the helicopter is located to the right of the airplane. Which aircraft has the right-of-way, and why?
A) The helicopter, because it is to the right of the airplane.
B) The airplane, because airplanes have the right-of-way over helicopters.
C) The helicopter, because helicopters have the right-of-way over airplanes.

If an aircraft's operation in flight was substantially affected by an alteration or repair, the aircraft documents must show that it was test flown and approved for return to service by an appropriately-rated pilot prior to being operated
A) with passengers aboard.
B) under VFR or IFR rules.
C) for compensation or hire.

A pilot in command (PIC) of a civil aircraft may not allow any object to be dropped from that aircraft in flight
A) unless the PIC has permission to drop any object over private property.
B) unless reasonable precautions are taken to avoid injury to property.
C) if it creates a hazard to persons and property.

The conditions necessary for the formation of stratiform clouds are a lifting action and
A) unstable, moist air.
B) unstable, dry air.
C) stable, moist air.

Hazardous wind shear is commonly encountered
A) near warm or stationary frontal activity.
B) in areas of temperature inversion and near thunderstorms.
C) when the wind velocity is stronger than 35 knots.

What is the meaning of the terms PROB40 2102 +TSRA as used in a Terminal Aerodrome Forecasts (TAF)
A) Probability of heavy thunderstorms with rain showers below 4000 feet at time 2102.
B) Between 2100Z and 0200Z there is a forty percent (40%) probability of thunderstorms with heavy rain.
C) Beginning at 2102Z forty percent (40%) probability of heavy thunderstorms and rain showers.

To act as pilot in command of an airplane that is equipped with retractable landing gear, flaps, and controllable-pitch propeller, a person is required to
A) receive and log ground and flight training in such an airplane, and obtain a logbook endorsement certifying proficiency.
B) make at least six takeoffs and landings in such an airplane within the preceding 6 months.
C) hold a multiengine airplane class rating.

The visibility entry in a Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) of P6SM implies that the prevailing visibility is expected to be greater than
A) 6 statute miles.
B) 6 nautical miles.
C) 6 kilometers.

The station originating the following METAR observation has a field elevation of 3,500 feet MSL. If the sky cover is one continuous layer, what is the thickness of the cloud layer? (Top of overcast reported at 7,500 feet MSL).

METAR KHOB 151250Z 17006KT 4SM OVC005 13/11 A2998
A) 2,500 feet
B) 4,000 feet.
C) 3 ,500 feet.

One of the most dangerous features of mountain waves is the turbulent areas in and
A) above rotor clouds.
B) below rotor clouds.
C) below lenticular clouds.

What transponder equipment is required for airplane operations within Class B airspace? A transponder
A) with 4096 code or Mode S, and Mode C capability.
B) is required for airplane operations when visibility is less than 3 miles.
C) with 4096 code capability is required except when operating at or below 1,000 feet AGL under the terms of a letter of agreement.

Which is true regarding flight operations in Class A airspace?
A) Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment.
B) Aircraft must be equipped with approved distance measuring equipment (DME).
C) May conduct operations under visual flight rules.

The Telephone Information Briefing Service (TIBS) provided by AFSSs includes
A) recorded weather briefing service for the local area, usually within 50 miles and route forecasts.
B) weather information service on a common frequency (122.0 mHz).
C) continuous recording of meteorological and/or aeronautical information available by telephone.

Each required flight crewmember is required to keep his or her shoulder harness fastened
A) during takeoff and landing, unless he or she is unable to perform required duties.
B) while the crewmembers are at their stations, unless he or she is unable to perform required duties.
C) during takeoff and landing only when passengers are aboard the aircraft.

Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, the maximum indicated airspeed permitted when at or below 2,500 feet AGL within 4 NM of the primary airport within Class C or D airspace is
A) 200 knots.
B) 230 knots.
C) 180 knots.

In what ways do advection fog, radiation fog, and steam fog differ in their formation or location?
A) Radiation fog is restricted to land areas; advection fog is most common along coastal areas; steam fog forms over a water surface.
B) Advection fog deepens as windspeed increases up to 20 knots; steam fog requires calm or very light wind; radiation fog forms when the ground or water cools the air by radiation.
C) Steam fog forms from moist air moving over a colder surface; advection fog requires cold air over a warmer surface; radiation fog is produced by radiational cooling of the ground.

To operate an airplane under SPECIAL VFR (SVFR) within Class D airspace at night, which is required?
A) The Class D airspace must be specifically designated as a night SVFR area.
B) The pilot must hold an instrument rating, but the airplane need not be equipped for instrument flight, as long as the weather will remain at or above SVFR minimums.
C) The pilot must hold an instrument rating, and the airplane must be equipped for instrument flight.

Which would increase the stability of an air mass?
A) Cooling from below.
B) Warming from below.
C) Decrease in water vapor.

What single reference contains information regarding a volcanic eruption, that is occurring or expected to occur?
A) Weather Depiction Chart.
B) In-Flight Weather Advisories.
C) Terminal Area Forecasts (TAF).

Which statement is true regarding squall lines?
A) They are nonfrontal and often contain severe, steady-state thunderstorms.
B) They are always associated with cold fronts.
C) They are slow in forming, but rapid in movement.

Approved flotation gear, readily available to each occupant, is required on each aircraft if it is being flown for hire over water,
A) beyond power-off gliding distance from shore.
B) more than 50 statute miles from shore.
C) in amphibious aircraft beyond 50 NM from shore.

When operating an airplane for the purpose of takeoff or landing within Class D airspace under special VFR, what minimum distance from clouds and what visibility are required?
A) Remain clear of clouds, and the flight visibility must be at least 1 NM.
B) Remain clear of clouds, and the ground visibility must be at least 1 SM.
C) 500 feet beneath clouds, and the ground visibility must be at least 1 SM.

Low-level wind shear may occur when
A) surface winds are light and variable.
B) there is a low-level temperature inversion with strong winds above the inversion.
C) surface winds are above 15 knots and there is no change in wind direction and windspeed with height.

What determines the structure or type of clouds which will form as a result of air being forced to ascend?
A) The stability of the air before lifting occurs.
B) The method by which the air is lifted.
C) The relative humidity of the air after lifting occurs.

A moist, unstable air mass is characterized by
A) cumuliform clouds and showery precipitation.
B) stratiform clouds and continuous precipitation.
C) poor visibility and smooth air.

What type weather can one expect from moist, unstable air, and very warm surface temperatures?
A) Continuous heavy precipitation.
B) Fog and low stratus clouds.
C) Strong updrafts and cumulonimbus clouds.

In the Northern Hemisphere, the wind is deflected to the
A) right by Coriolis force.
B) left by Coriolis force.
C) right by surface friction.

The most severe weather conditions, such as destructive winds, heavy hail, and tornadoes, are generally associated with
A) fast-moving occluded fronts.
B) slow-moving warm fronts which slope above the tropopause.
C) squall lines.

Which is true regarding flight operations in Class A airspace?
A) Aircraft must be equipped with approved distance measuring equipment (DME).
B) Aircraft must be equipped with an approved ATC transponder.
C) Must conduct operations under instrument flight rules.

The Low Level Wind Shear Alert System (LLWAS) provides wind data and software process to detect the presence of a
A) rotating column of air extending from a cumulonimbus cloud.
B) downward motion of the air associated with continuous winds blowing with an easterly component due to the rotation of the Earth.
C) change in wind direction and/or speed within a very short distance above the airport.

What flight time may a pilot log as second in command?
A) All flight time when qualified and occupying a crewmember station in an aircraft that requires more than one pilot.
B) Only that flight time during which the second in command is the sole manipulator of the controls.
C) All flight time while acting as second in command in aircraft configured for more than one pilot.

What is meant by the Special METAR weather observation for KBOI?
SPECI KBOI 091854Z 32005KT 1 1/2SM RA BR OVC007 17/16 A2990 RMK RAB12
A) Rain and mist obstructing visibility; rain began at 1812Z.
B) Rain and overcast at 1200 feet AGL.
C) Rain and fog obscuring two-tenths of the sky; rain began at 1912Z.

To avoid possible wake turbulence from a large jet aircraft that has just landed prior to your takeoff, at which point on the runway should you plan to become airborne?
A) Approximately 500 feet prior to the point where the jet touched down.
B) At the point where the jet touched down, or just prior to this point.
C) Past the point where the jet touched down.

What are the oxygen requirements when operating at cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000 feet MSL?
A) Oxygen must be available for the flightcrew.
B) Oxygen is not required at any altitude in a balloon.
C) The flightcrew and passengers must be provided with supplemental oxygen.

After an annual inspection has been completed and the aircraft has been returned to service, an appropriate notation should be made
A) in the aircraft maintenance records.
B) on the airworthiness certificate.
C) in the FAA-approved flight manual.

The Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service (HIWAS) is a broadcast service over selected VORs that provides
A) SIGMETs and AIRMETs at 15 minutes and 45 minutes past the hour for the first hour after issuance.
B) SIGMETs, CONVECTIVE SIGMETs and AIRMETs at 15 minutes and 45 minutes past the hour.
C) continuous broadcast of inflight weather advisories.

To serve as pilot in command of an airplane that is certified for more than one pilot crewmember, and operated under part 91, a person must
A) receive and log ground and flight training from an authorized flight instructor.
B) complete a flight review within the preceding 24 calendar months.
C) complete a pilot-in-command proficiency check within the preceding 12 calendar months in an airplane that is type certificated for more than one pilot.

The U.S. High-Level Significant Weather Prognostic Chart forecasts significant weather for what airspace?
A) 24,000 feet to 63,000 feet.
B) 24,000 feet to 45,000 feet.
C) 18,000 feet to 45,000 feet.

What does the contraction VRB in the Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) mean?
A) Cloud base is variable.
B) Wind speed is variable throughout the period.
C) Wind direction is variable.

(Refer to figure 51.) The pilot generally calls ground control after landing when the aircraft is completely clear of the runway. This is when the aircraft
A) is on the dashed-line side of the middle symbol.
B) is past the solid-line side of the middle symbol.
C) passes the red symbol shown at the top of the figure.

No person may operate an aircraft in simulated instrument flight conditions unless the
A) other control seat is occupied by a safety pilot, who holds at least a private pilot certificate and is appropriately rated.
B) other control seat is occupied by at least an appropriately rated commercial pilot.
C) pilot has filed an IFR flight plan and received an IFR clearance.

Who has the final authority to accept or decline any 'land and hold short' (LAHSO) clearance?
A) ATC tower controller.
B) Airplane owner/operator.
C) Pilot-in-command.

What altimeter setting is required when operating an aircraft at 18,000 feet MSL?
A) Altimeter setting at the departure or destination airport.
B) Current reported altimeter setting of a station along the route.
C) 29.92 Inches Hg.

Which is true with respect to formation flights? Formation flights are
A) not authorized when carrying passengers for hire.
B) authorized when carrying passengers for hire, with prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft in the formation.
C) not authorized when visibilities are less than 3 SM.

During a night operation, the pilot of aircraft #1 sees only the green light of aircraft #2. If the aircraft are converging, which pilot has the right-of-way? The pilot of aircraft
A) #1; aircraft #1 is to the right of aircraft #2.
B) #2; aircraft #2 is to the right of aircraft #1
C) #2; aircraft #2 is to the left of aircraft #1.

Operating regulations for U.S.-registered civil airplanes require that during movement on the surface, takeoffs, and landings, a seat belt and shoulder harness (if installed) must be properly secured about each
A) flight and cabin crewmembers.
B) flight crewmember only.
C) person on board.

During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts?
A) Mature.
B) Dissipating.
C) Developing.

What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm?
A) Roll cloud.
B) Beginning of rain at the surface.
C) Continuous updraft.

A standard airworthiness certificate remains in effect as long as the aircraft receives
A) an annual inspection.
B) an annual inspection and a 100-hour inspection prior to their expiration dates.
C) required maintenance and inspections.

The required preflight action relative to weather reports and fuel requirements is applicable to
A) IFR flights only.
B) any flight not in the vicinity of an airport.
C) any flight conducted for compensation or hire.

Why does the wind have a tendency to flow parallel to the isobars above the friction level?
A) Coriolis force acts perpendicular to a line connecting the highs and lows.
B) Coriolis force tends to counterbalance the horizontal pressure gradient.
C) Friction of the air with the Earth deflects the air perpendicular to the pressure gradient.

An airplane is overtaking a helicopter. Which aircraft has the right-of-way?
A) Helicopter; the pilot should expect to be passed on the left.
B) Airplane; the airplane pilot should alter course to the left to pass.
C) Helicopter; the pilot should expect to be passed on the right.

When approaching to land at an airport, without an operating control tower, in Class G airspace, the pilot should
A) make all turns to the left, unless otherwise indicated.
B) fly a left-hand traffic pattern at 800 feet AGL.
C) enter and fly a traffic pattern at 800 feet AGL.

(Refer to figure 51.) The red symbol at the top would most likely be found
A) at an intersection where a roadway may be mistaken as a taxiway.
B) near the approach end of ILS runways.
C) upon exiting all runways prior to calling ground control.

Before beginning any flight under IFR, the pilot in command must become familiar with all available information concerning that flight. In addition, the pilot must
A) be familiar with all instrument approaches at the destination airport.
B) be familiar with the runway lengths at airports of intended use, weather reports, fuel requirements, and alternatives available, if the planned flight cannot be completed.
C) list an alternate airport on the flight plan, and confirm adequate takeoff and landing performance at the destination airport.

What visible signs indicate extreme turbulence in thunderstorms?
A) Cumulonimbus clouds, very frequent lightning, and roll clouds.
B) Low ceiling and visibility, hail, and precipitation static.
C) Base of the clouds near the surface, heavy rain, and hail.

Which is true with respect to formation flights? Formation flights are
A) not authorized, unless the pilot in command of each aircraft is trained and found competent in formation.
B) not authorized, except by arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft.
C) authorized when carrying passengers for hire, with prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft in the formation.

Which is true regarding the use of airborne weather-avoidance radar for the recognition of certain weather conditions?
A) The radarscope provides no assurance of avoiding instrument weather conditions.
B) The avoidance of hail is assured when flying between and just clear of the most intense echoes.
C) The clear area between intense echoes indicates that visual sighting of storms can be maintained when flying between the echoes.

Which statement is true concerning squall lines?
A) They offer the most intense weather hazards to aircraft.
B) They form slowly, but move rapidly.
C) They are associated with frontal systems only.

When is preflight action required, relative to alternatives available, if the planned flight cannot be completed?
A) Any flight not in the vicinity of an airport.
B) IFR flights only.
C) Any flight conducted for compensation or hire.

Hypoxia is the result of which of these conditions?
A) Excessive oxygen in the bloodstream.
B) Excessive carbon dioxide in the bloodstream.
C) Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain.

Fog produced by frontal activity is a result of saturation due to
A) nocturnal cooling.
B) adiabatic cooling.
C) evaporation of precipitation.

If a temperature inversion is encountered immediately after takeoff or during an approach to a landing, a potential hazard exists due to
A) wind shear.
B) strong surface winds.
C) strong convective currents.

VFR cruising altitudes are required to be maintained when flying
A) at 3,000 feet or more above MSL, based on magnetic heading.
B) more than 3,000 feet AGL, based on magnetic course.
C) at 3,000 feet or more AGL, based on true course.

(Refer to figure 51.) When taxiing up to an active runway, you are likely to be clear of the ILS critical area when short of which symbol?
A) Bottom yellow.
B) Middle yellow.
C) Top red.

Required flight crewmembers' safety belts must be fastened
A) while the crewmembers are at their stations.
B) only during takeoff and landing when passengers are aboard the aircraft.
C) only during takeoff and landing.

Posts : 102
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Join date : 2009-11-30
Location : Melbourne, Australia


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