PPL Prac Questions 2.

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PPL Prac Questions 2. Empty PPL Prac Questions 2.

Post  Admin on Thu Dec 03, 2009 3:46 am

To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, a pilot must show by logbook endorsement the satisfactory completion of a flight review or completion of a pilot proficiency check within the preceding
A) 6 calendar months.
B) 24 calendar months.
C) 12 calendar months.

What is density altitude?
A) The altitude read directly from the altimeter.
B) The pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature.
C) The height above the standard datum plane.

In what flight condition must an aircraft be placed in order to spin?
A) Stalled.
B) Partially stalled with one wing low.
C) In a steep diving spiral.

(Refer to figure 30, illustration 2.) Determine the approximate heading to intercept the 180° bearing TO the station.
A) 040°.
B) 220°.
C) 160°.

The four forces acting on an airplane in flight are
A) lift, weight, gravity, and thrust.
B) lift, gravity, power, and friction.
C) lift, weight, thrust, and drag.

Responsibility for collision avoidance in an alert area rests with
A) the controlling agency.
B) all pilots.
C) Air Traffic Control.

If an aircraft is involved in an accident which results in substantial damage to the aircraft, the nearest NTSB field office should be notified
A) within 7 days.
B) within 48 hours.
C) immediately.

(Refer to figure 53.) When approaching Lincoln Municipal from the west at noon for the purpose of landing, initial communications should be with
A) Lincoln Approach Control on 124.0 MHz.
B) Lincoln Tower on 118.5 MHz.
C) Minneapolis Center on 128.75 MHz.

No person may operate an aircraft in acrobatic flight when the flight visibility is less than
A) 5 miles.
B) 3 miles.
C) 7 miles.

Which factor would tend to increase the density altitude at a given airport?
A) A decrease in relative humidity.
B) An increase in ambient temperature.
C) An increase in barometric pressure.

Below FL180, en route weather advisories should be obtained from an FSS on
A) 122.1 MHz.
B) 123.6 MHz.
C) 122.0 MHz.

What is a characteristic of stable air?
A) Unlimited visibility.
B) Stratiform clouds.
C) Cumulus clouds.

(Refer to figure 4.) What is the maximum structural cruising speed?
A) 208 MPH.
B) 100 MPH.
C) 165 MPH.

The most important rule to remember in the event of a power failure after becoming airborne is to
A) immediately establish the proper gliding attitude and airspeed.
B) determine the wind direction to plan for the forced landing.
C) quickly check the fuel supply for possible fuel exhaustion.

Basic radar service in the terminal radar program is best described as
A) mandatory radar service provided by the Automated Radar Terminal System (ARTS) program.
B) wind-shear warning at participating airports.
C) safety alerts, traffic advisories, and limited vectoring to VFR aircraft.

(Refer to figure 25, and figure 29.) The VOR is tuned to Bonham VORTAC (area 3), and the aircraft is positioned over the town of Sulphur Springs (area 5). Which VOR indication is correct?
A) 1.
B) 7.
C) 8.

(Refer to figure 12.) The wind direction and velocity at KJFK is from
A) 180° magnetic at 4 knots.
B) 040° true at 18 knots.
C) 180° true at 4 knots.

(Refer to figure 15.) The only cloud type forecast in TAF reports is
A) Nimbostratus.
B) Scattered cumulus.
C) Cumulonimbus.

An approved chair-type parachute may be carried in an aircraft for emergency use if it has been packed by an appropriately rated parachute rigger within the preceding
A) 120 days.
B) 180 days.
C) 365 days.

When an ATC clearance has been obtained, no pilot in command may deviate from that clearance, unless that pilot obtains an amended clearance. The one exception to this regulation is
A) when the clearance states 'at pilot's discretion.'
B) an emergency.
C) if the clearance contains a restriction.

For aviation purposes, ceiling is defined as the height above the Earth's surface of the
A) lowest reported obscuration and the highest layer of clouds reported as overcast.
B) lowest broken or overcast layer or vertical visibility into an obscuration.
C) lowest layer of clouds reported as scattered, broken, or thin.

What would decrease the stability of an air mass?
A) Cooling from below.
B) Warming from below.
C) Decrease in water vapor.

After landing at a tower-controlled airport, when should the pilot contact ground control?
A) After reaching a taxiway that leads directly to the parking area.
B) When advised by the tower to do so.
C) Prior to turning off the runway.

Who is primarily responsible for maintaining an aircraft in airworthy condition?
A) Pilot-in-command.
B) Mechanic.
C) Owner or operator.

Radar weather reports are of special interest to pilots because they indicate
A) location of precipitation along with type, intensity, and cell movement of precipitation.
B) large areas of low ceilings and fog.
C) location of precipitation along with type, intensity, and trend.

(Refer to figure 4.) What is the maximum flaps-extended speed?
A) 65 MPH.
B) 100 MPH.
C) 165 MPH.

(Refer to figure 25.) Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from Majors Airport (area 1) to Winnsboro Airport (area 2). The wind is from 340° at 12 knots, the true airspeed is 36 knots, and the magnetic variation is 6°30'E.
A) 091°.
B) 101°.
C) 078°.

Loading an airplane to the most aft CG will cause the airplane to be
A) less stable at slow speeds, but more stable at high speeds.
B) less stable at all speeds.
C) less stable at high speeds, but more stable at low speeds.

No person may operate an aircraft in acrobatic flight when
A) over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement.
B) less than 2,500 feet AGL.
C) flight visibility is less than 5 miles.

(Refer to figure 23.) Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from St. Maries Airport (area 4) to Priest River Airport (area 1). The wind is from 340° at 10 knots, and the true airspeed is 90 knots.
A) 345°.
B) 320°.
C) 327°.

If a pilot changes the altimeter setting from 30.11 to 29.96, what is the approximate change in indication?
A) Altimeter will indicate .15 inches Hg higher.
B) Altimeter will indicate 150 feet lower.
C) Altimeter will indicate 150 feet higher.

An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying on a heading of 090°:
Where should the pilot look for this traffic?
A) South.
B) East.
C) West.

An operable 4096-code transponder with an encoding altimeter is required in which airspace?
A) Class D and Class G (below 10,000 feet MSL).
B) Class A, Class B (and within 30 miles of the Class B primary airport), and Class C.
C) Class D and Class E (below 10,000 feet MSL).

What service should a pilot normally expect from an En Route Flight Advisory Service (EFAS) station?
A) Preferential routing and radar vectoring to circumnavigate severe weather.
B) Actual weather information and thunderstorm activity along the route.
C) Severe weather information, changes to flight plans, and receipt of routine position reports.

(Refer to figure 19, area D.) What is the direction and speed of movement of the cell?
A) North at 17 knots.
B) South at 17 knots.
C) North at 17 MPH.

Outside controlled airspace, the minimum flight visibility requirement for VFR flight above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL during daylight hours is
A) 1 mile.
B) 5 miles.
C) 3 miles.

A non-tower satellite airport, within the same Class D airspace as that designated for the primary airport, requires radio communications be established and maintained with the
A) primary airport's control tower.
B) satellite airport's UNICOM.
C) associated Flight Service Station.

The operating principle of float-type carburetors is based on the
A) increase in air velocity in the throat of a venturi causing an increase in air pressure.
B) difference in air pressure at the venturi throat and the air inlet.
C) automatic metering of air at the venturi as the aircraft gains altitude.

(Refer to figure 27, area 2.) What is the recommended communication procedure when inbound to land at Cooperstown Airport?
A) Contact UNICOM when 10 miles out on 122.8 MHz.
B) Broadcast intentions when 10 miles out on the CTAF/MULTICOM frequency, 122.9 MHz.
C) Circle the airport in a left turn prior to entering traffic.

What type fuel can be substituted for an aircraft if the recommended octane is not available?
A) Unleaded automotive gas of the same octane rating.
B) The next higher octane aviation gas.
C) The next lower octane aviation gas.

(Refer to figure 6.) To receive accurate indications during flight from a heading indicator, the instrument must be
A) set prior to flight on a known heading.
B) calibrated on a compass rose at regular intervals.
C) periodically realigned with the magnetic compass as the gyro precesses.

To obtain a continuous transcribed weather briefing, including winds aloft and route forecasts for a cross-country flight, a pilot should monitor a
A) Transcribed Weather Broadcast (TWEB) on an NDB or a VOR facility.
B) regularly scheduled weather broadcast on a VOR frequency.
C) VHF radio receiver tuned to an Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) frequency.

(Refer to figure 18.) According to the Weather Depiction Chart, the weather for a flight from southern Michigan to north Indiana is ceilings
A) 1,000 to 3,000 feet and/or visibility 3 to 5 miles.
B) greater than 3,000 feet and visibility greater than 5 miles.
C) less than 1,000 feet and/or visibility less than 3 miles.

The presence of carburetor ice in an aircraft equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller can be verified by applying carburetor heat and noting
A) an increase in RPM and then a gradual decrease in RPM.
B) a decrease in RPM and then a gradual increase in RPM.
C) a decrease in RPM and then a constant RPM indication.

The danger of spatial disorientation during flight in poor visual conditions may be reduced by
A) leaning the body in the opposite direction of the motion of the aircraft.
B) shifting the eyes quickly between the exterior visual field and the instrument panel.
C) having faith in the instruments rather than taking a chance on the sensory organs.

All operations within Class C airspace must be in
A) compliance with ATC clearances and instructions.
B) accordance with instrument flight rules.
C) an aircraft equipped with a 4096-code transponder with Mode C encoding capability.

Detonation may occur at high-power settings when
A) the fuel mixture ignites instantaneously instead of burning progressively and evenly.
B) the fuel mixture is ignited too early by hot carbon deposits in the cylinder.
C) an excessively rich fuel mixture causes an explosive gain in power.

Under what condition, if any, may a pilot allow a person who is obviously under the influence of drugs to be carried aboard an aircraft?
A) Under no condition.
B) In an emergency or if the person is a medical patient under proper care.
C) Only if the person does not have access to the cockpit or pilot's compartment.

Where may an aircraft's operating limitations be found?
A) In the current, FAA-approved flight manual, approved manual material, markings, and placards, or any combination thereof.
B) In the aircraft airframe and engine logbooks.
C) On the Airworthiness Certificate.

Thunderstorms reach their greatest intensity during the
A) mature stage.
B) downdraft stage.
C) cumulus stage.

Each pilot of an aircraft approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI) shall
A) maintain a 3° glide to the runway.
B) stay high until the runway can be reached in a power-off landing.
C) maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope.

(Refer to figure 26.) Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from Fort Worth Meacham (area 4) to Denton Muni (area 1). The wind is from 330° at 25 knots, the true airspeed is 110 knots, and the magnetic variation is 7° east.
A) 017°.
B) 003°.
C) 023°.

(Refer to figure 25.) Determine the magnetic course from Airpark East Airport (area 1) to Winnsboro Airport (area 2). Magnetic variation is 6°30'E.
A) 082°.
B) 075°.
C) 091°.

Preventive maintenance has been performed on an aircraft. What paperwork is required?
A) A full, detailed description of the work done must be entered in the airframe logbook.
B) The signature, certificate number, and kind of certificate held by the person approving the work and a description of the work must be entered in the aircraft maintenance records.
C) The date the work was completed, and the name of the person who did the work must be entered in the airframe and engine logbook.

(Refer to figure 21, area 2.) The flag symbol at Lake Drummond represents a
A) compulsory reporting point for Norfolk Class C airspace.
B) compulsory reporting point for Hampton Roads Airport.
C) visual checkpoint used to identify position for initial callup to Norfolk Approach Control.

(Refer to figure 21 area 4.) What hazards to aircraft may exist in restricted areas such as R-5302B?
A) High volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity.
B) Unusual, often invisible, hazards such as aerial gunnery or guided missiles.
C) Military training activities that necessitate acrobatic or abrupt flight maneuvers.

The person directly responsible for the pre-launch briefing of passengers for a flight is the
A) pilot in command.
B) ground crewmember.
C) safety officer.

Thunderstorms which generally produce the most intense hazard to aircraft are
A) squall line thunderstorms.
B) steady-state thunderstorms.
C) warm front thunderstorms.

Which weather conditions should be expected beneath a low-level temperature inversion layer when the relative humidity is high?
A) Light wind shear, poor visibility, haze, and light rain.
B) Smooth air, poor visibility, fog, haze, or low clouds.
C) Turbulent air, poor visibility, fog, low stratus type clouds, and showery precipitation.

Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed?
A) Aircraft refueling other aircraft.
B) Glider.
C) Airship.

When flying in the airspace underlying Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is
A) 230 knots.
B) 250 knots.
C) 200 knots.

What is one of the neglected items when a pilot relies on short and long term memory for repetitive tasks?
A) Checklists.
B) Situation awareness.
C) Flying outside the envelope.

The pitot system provides impact pressure for which instrument?
A) Vertical-speed indicator.
B) Airspeed indicator.
C) Altimeter.

If recency of experience requirements for night flight are not met and official sunset is 1830, the latest time passengers may be carried is
A) 1829.
B) 1859.
C) 1929.

No person may attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft with
A) .008 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.
B) .04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.
C) .004 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.

(Refer to figure 21, area 3.) Determine the approximate latitude and longitude of Currituck County Airport.
A) 36°24'N - 76°01'W.
B) 36°48'N - 76°01'W.
C) 47°24'N - 75°58'W.

The definition of nighttime is
A) the time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight.
B) 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise.
C) sunset to sunrise.

The numbers 9 and 27 on a runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately
A) 090° and 270° true.
B) 009° and 027° true.
C) 090° and 270° magnetic.

Pilots flying over a national wildlife refuge are requested to fly no lower than
A) 2,000 feet AGL.
B) 1,000 feet AGL.
C) 3,000 feet AGL.

When may an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be tested?
A) Anytime.
B) At 15 and 45 minutes past the hour.
C) During the first 5 minutes after the hour.

(Refer to figure 22.) The terrain elevation of the light tan area between Minot (area 1) and Audubon Lake (area 2) varies from
A) 2,000 feet to 2,500 feet MSL.
B) 2,000 feet to 2,700 feet MSL.
C) sea level to 2,000 feet MSL.

What force makes an airplane turn?
A) The horizontal component of lift.
B) The vertical component of lift.
C) Centrifugal force.

What is the approximate base of the cumulus clouds if the surface air temperature at 1,000 feet MSL is 70 °F and the dewpoint is 48 °F?
A) 5,000 feet MSL.
B) 6,000 feet MSL.
C) 4,000 feet MSL.

(Refer to figure 22.) Which public use airports depicted are indicated as having fuel?
A) Minot Intl. (area 1) and Garrison (area 2).
B) Minot Intl. (area 1) and Mercer County Regional Airport (area 3).
C) Mercer County Regional Airport (area 3) and Garrison (area 2).

When must a pilot who deviates from a regulation during an emergency send a written report of that deviation to the Administrator?
A) Within 10 days.
B) Upon request.
C) Within 7 days.

What are the processes by which moisture is added to unsaturated air?
A) Evaporation and sublimation.
B) Supersaturation and evaporation.
C) Heating and condensation.

A pilot can expect a wind-shear zone in a temperature inversion whenever the windspeed at 2,000 to 4,000 feet above the surface is at least
A) 10 knots.
B) 15 knots.
C) 25 knots.

SIGMETs are issued as a warning of weather conditions hazardous to which aircraft?
A) Small aircraft only.
B) Large aircraft only.
C) All aircraft.

An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying north in a calm wind:
Where should the pilot look for this traffic?
A) North.
B) West.
C) South.

Flight crewmembers are required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened during
A) takeoffs and landings.
B) all flight conditions.
C) flight in turbulent air.

A steady green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal that the pilot
A) should return for landing.
B) should give way to other aircraft and continue circling.
C) is cleared to land.

When activated, an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) transmits on
A) 123.0 and 119.0 MHz.
B) 118.0 and 118.8 MHz.
C) 121.5 and 243.0 MHz.

The letters VHF/DF appearing in the Airport/Facility Directory for a certain airport indicate that
A) the Flight Service Station has equipment with which to determine your direction from the station.
B) this airport is designated as an airport of entry.
C) this airport has a direct-line phone to the Flight Service Station.

(Refer to figure 29, illustration 3.) The VOR receiver has the indications shown. What is the aircraft's position relative to the station?
A) Southeast.
B) East.
C) West.

A temperature inversion would most likely result in which weather condition?
A) Clouds with extensive vertical development above an inversion aloft.
B) Good visibility in the lower levels of the atmosphere and poor visibility above an inversion aloft.
C) An increase in temperature as altitude is increased.

(Refer to figure 51.) The traffic patterns indicated in the segmented circle have been arranged to avoid flights over an area to the
A) south of the airport.
B) north of the airport.
C) southeast of the airport.

The greatest vortex strength occurs when the generating aircraft is
A) heavy, dirty, and fast.
B) heavy, clean, and slow.
C) light, dirty, and fast.

(Refer to figure 51.) The segmented circle indicates that the airport traffic is
A) left-hand for Runway 36 and right-hand for Runway 18.
B) right-hand for Runway 9 and left-hand for Runway 27.
C) left-hand for Runway 18 and right-hand for Runway 36.

A stable air mass is most likely to have which characteristic?
A) Showery precipitation.
B) Turbulent air.
C) Poor surface visibility.

How should contact be established with an En Route Flight Advisory Service (EFAS) station, and what service would be expected?
A) Call EFAS on 122.2 for routine weather, current reports on hazardous weather, and altimeter settings.
B) Call flight assistance on 122.5 for advisory service pertaining to severe weather.
C) Call Flight Watch on 122.0 for information regarding actual weather and thunderstorm activity along proposed route.

For internal cooling, reciprocating aircraft engines are especially dependent on
A) air flowing over the exhaust manifold.
B) the circulation of lubricating oil.
C) a properly functioning thermostat.

If there is thunderstorm activity in the vicinity of an airport at which you plan to land, which hazardous atmospheric phenomenon might be expected on the landing approach?
A) Precipitation static.
B) Steady rain.
C) Wind-shear turbulence.

(Refer to figure 16.) What is the outlook for the southern half of Indiana after 0700Z?
A) Scattered clouds at 3,000 feet AGL.
C) Scattered clouds at 10,000 feet.

What are the standard temperature and pressure values for sea level?
A) 15 °C and 29.92 inches Hg.
B) 59 °C and 1013.2 millibars.
C) 59 °F and 29.92 millibars.

When the course deviation indicator (CDI) needle is centered during an omnireceiver check using a VOR test signal (VOT), the omnibearing selector (OBS) and the TO/FROM indicator should read
A) 0° FROM or 180° TO, regardless of the pilot's position from the VOT.
B) 0° TO or 180° FROM, regardless of the pilot's position from the VOT.
C) 180° FROM, only if the pilot is due north of the VOT.

(Refer to figure 23, area 2; and figure 32.) At Coeur D'Alene, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to monitor airport traffic?
A) 122.8 MHz.
B) 122.05 MHz.
C) 135.075 MHz.

(Refer to figure 24, area 3.) What is the height of the lighted obstacle approximately 6 nautical miles southwest of Savannah International?
A) 1,549 feet MSL.
B) 1,500 feet MSL.
C) 1,531 feet AGL.

When does P-factor cause the airplane to yaw to the left?
A) When at low angles of attack.
B) When at high angles of attack.
C) When at high airspeeds.

(Refer to figure 24 and 59.) Determine the compass heading for a flight from Claxton-Evans County Airport (area 2) to Hampton Varnville Airport (area 1). The wind is from 280° at 08 knots, and the true airspeed is 85 knots.
A) 042°.
B) 038°.
C) 033°.

(Refer to figure 23.) Determine the estimated time en route for a flight from Priest River Airport (area 1) to Shoshone County Airport (area 3). The wind is from 030 at 12 knots and the true airspeed is 95 knots. Add 2 minutes for climb-out.
A) 31 minutes.
B) 29 minutes.
C) 27 minutes.

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Join date : 2009-11-30
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