PPL Prac Questions 3.

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PPL Prac Questions 3. Empty PPL Prac Questions 3.

Post  Admin on Thu Dec 03, 2009 3:47 am

Which technique should a pilot use to scan for traffic to the right and left during straight-and-level flight?
A) Continuous sweeping of the windshield from right to left.
B) Concentrate on relative movement detected in the peripheral vision area.
C) Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals.

(Refer to figure 51.) The segmented circle indicates that a landing on Runway 26 will be with a
A) right-quartering tailwind.
B) right-quartering headwind.
C) left-quartering headwind.

(Refer to figure 23, area 2 and legend 1.) For information about the parachute jumping and glider operations at Silverwood Airport, refer to
A) notes on the border of the chart.
B) the Airport/Facility Directory.
C) the Notices to Airmen (NOTAM) publication.

In the Northern Hemisphere, if an aircraft is accelerated or decelerated, the magnetic compass will normally indicate
A) a turn momentarily.
B) a turn toward the south.
C) correctly when on a north or south heading.

An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot during a local flight:
Where should the pilot look for this traffic?
A) Between directly ahead and 90° to the right.
B) Between directly ahead and 90° to the left.
C) Between directly behind and 90° to the right.

The presence of carburetor ice in an aircraft equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller can be verified by applying carburetor heat and noting
A) a decrease in RPM and then a constant RPM indication.
B) a decrease in RPM and then a gradual increase in RPM.
C) an increase in RPM and then a gradual decrease in RPM.

(Refer to figure 15.) During the time period from 0600Z to 0800Z, what visibility is forecast for KOKC?
A) Greater than 6 statute miles.
B) Not forecasted.
C) Possibly 6 statute miles.

(Refer to figure 25.) What is the approximate position of the aircraft if the VOR receivers indicate the 245° radial of Sulphur Springs VOR-DME (area 5) and the 140° radial of Bonham VORTAC (area 3)?
A) Majors Airport.
B) Meadowview Airport.
C) Glenmar Airport.

What is ground effect?
A) The result of the interference of the surface of the Earth with the airflow patterns about an airplane.
B) The result of the disruption of the airflow patterns about the wings of an airplane to the point where the wings will no longer support the airplane in flight.
C) The result of an alteration in airflow patterns increasing induced drag about the wings of an airplane.

Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed?
A) Aircraft towing other aircraft.
B) Airship.
C) Gyroplane.

In what flight condition is torque effect the greatest in a single-engine airplane?
A) Low airspeed, low power, low angle of attack.
B) Low airspeed, high power, high angle of attack.
C) High airspeed, high power, high angle of attack.

(Refer to figure 23.) What is the estimated time en route from Sandpoint Airport (area 1) to St. Maries Airport (area 4)? The wind is from 215° at 25 knots, and the true airspeed is 125 knots.
A) 34 minutes.
B) 30 minutes.
C) 38 minutes.

Detonation may occur at high-power settings when
A) an excessively rich fuel mixture causes an explosive gain in power.
B) the fuel mixture ignites instantaneously instead of burning progressively and evenly.
C) the fuel mixture is ignited too early by hot carbon deposits in the cylinder.

(Refer to figure 4.) Which color identifies the never-exceed speed?
A) The red radial line.
B) Upper limit of the white arc.
C) Lower limit of the yellow arc.

(Refer to figure 49.) Area C on the airport depicted is classified as a
A) stabilized area.
B) closed runway.
C) multiple heliport.

What is the relationship of lift, drag, thrust, and weight when the airplane is in straight-and-level flight?
A) Lift equals weight and thrust equals drag.
B) Lift and weight equal thrust and drag.
C) Lift, drag, and weight equal thrust.

What often leads to spatial disorientation or collision with ground/obstacles when flying under Visual Flight Rules (VFR)?
A) Getting behind the aircraft.
B) Duck-under syndrome.
C) Continual flight into instrument conditions.

How long does the Airworthiness Certificate of an aircraft remain valid?
A) Indefinitely, unless the aircraft suffers major damage.
B) As long as the aircraft is maintained and operated as required by Federal Aviation Regulations.
C) As long as the aircraft has a current Registration Certificate.

The conditions necessary for the formation of cumulonimbus clouds are a lifting action and
A) unstable, moist air.
B) either stable or unstable air.
C) unstable air containing an excess of condensation nuclei.

Before a person holding a private pilot certificate may act as pilot in command of a high-performance airplane, that person must have
A) passed a flight test in that airplane from an FAA inspector.
B) received ground and flight instruction from an authorized flight instructor who then endorses that person's logbook.
C) an endorsement in that person's logbook that he or she is competent to act as pilot in command.

The amount of water vapor which air can hold depends on the
A) air temperature.
B) stability of the air.
C) dewpoint.

FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airspace are issued under which subject number?
A) 70.
B) 60.
C) 90.

Excessively high engine temperatures will
A) not appreciably affect an aircraft engine.
B) cause damage to heat-conducting hoses and warping of the cylinder cooling fins.
C) cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage.

(Refer to figure 16.) What is the outlook for the southern half of Indiana after 0700Z?
B) Scattered clouds at 3,000 feet AGL.
C) Scattered clouds at 10,000 feet.

With regard to carburetor ice, float-type carburetor systems in comparison to fuel injection systems are generally considered to be
A) equally susceptible to icing.
B) more susceptible to icing.
C) susceptible to icing only when visible moisture is present.

(Refer to figure 36.) What is the expected fuel consumption for a 1,000-nautical mile flight under the following conditions?
Pressure altitude 8,000 ft
Temperature 22 °C
Manifold pressure 20.8" Hg
Wind Calm

A) 60.2 gallons.
B) 73.2 gallons.
C) 70.1 gallons.

(Refer to figure 8.) Determine the pressure altitude at an airport that is 1,386 feet MSL with an altimeter setting of 29.97.
A) 1,562 feet MSL.
B) 1,451 feet MSL.
C) 1,341 feet MSL.

(Refer to figure 14.) The base and tops of the overcast layer reported by a pilot are
A) 1,800 feet MSL and 5,500 feet MSL.
B) 5,500 feet AGL and 7,200 feet MSL.
C) 7,200 feet MSL and 8,900 feet MSL.

Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed?
A) Aircraft refueling other aircraft.
B) Airship.
C) Glider.

(LB) (IN) (LB-IN)
Empty weight 1,495.0 101.4 151,593.0
Pilot and passengers 380.0 64.0 -
Fuel (30 gal usable no reserve) - 96.0 -
The CG is located how far aft of datum?

A) CG 92.44.
B) CG 94.01.
C) CG 119.8.

(Refer to figure 18.) What is the status of the front that extends from Nebraska through the upper peninsula of Michigan?
A) Cold.
B) Warm
C) Stationary.

To set the high intensity runway lights on medium intensity, the pilot should click the microphone seven times, then click it
A) one time.
B) five times.
C) three times.

While cruising at 9,500 feet MSL, the fuel/air mixture is properly adjusted. What will occur if a descent to 4,500 feet MSL is made without readjusting the mixture?
A) There will be more fuel in the cylinders than is needed for normal combustion, and the excess fuel will absorb heat and cool the engine.
B) The excessively rich mixture will create higher cylinder head temperatures and may cause detonation.
C) The fuel/air mixture may become excessively lean.

(Refer to figure 19, area E.) The top of the precipitation of the cell is
A) 16,000 feet AGL.
B) 25,000 feet MSL.
C) 16,000 feet MSL.

(Refer to figure 6.) To receive accurate indications during flight from a heading indicator, the instrument must be
A) set prior to flight on a known heading.
B) calibrated on a compass rose at regular intervals.
C) periodically realigned with the magnetic compass as the gyro precesses.

What is the one common factor which affects most preventable accidents?
A) Human error.
B) Structural failure.
C) Mechanical malfunction.

Which V-speed represents maximum flap extended speed?

Below FL180, en route weather advisories should be obtained from an FSS on
A) 122.0 MHz.
B) 123.6 MHz.
C) 122.1 MHz.

The danger of spatial disorientation during flight in poor visual conditions may be reduced by
A) leaning the body in the opposite direction of the motion of the aircraft.
B) shifting the eyes quickly between the exterior visual field and the instrument panel.
C) having faith in the instruments rather than taking a chance on the sensory organs.

Individual forecasts for specific routes of flight can be obtained from which weather source?
A) Terminal Forecasts.
B) Area Forecasts.
C) Transcribed Weather Broadcasts (TWEBs).

Which weather phenomenon is always associated with a thunderstorm?
A) Hail.
B) Lightning.
C) Heavy rain.

What is the antidote when a pilot has a hazardous attitude, such as "Impulsivity"?
A) It could happen to me.
B) Do it quickly to get it over with.
C) Not so fast, think first.

(Refer to figure 29, illustration 8.) The VOR receiver has the indications shown. What radial is the aircraft crossing?
A) 030°.
B) 300°.
C) 210°.

(Refer to figure 20.) How are Significant Weather Prognostic Charts best used by a pilot?
A) For determining areas to avoid (freezing levels and turbulence).
B) For overall planning at all altitudes.
C) For analyzing current frontal activity and cloud coverage.

What is pressure altitude?
A) The indicated altitude corrected for position and installation error.
B) The indicated altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature and pressure.
C) The altitude indicated when the barometric pressure scale is set to 29.92.

(Refer to figure 21, area 3.) Determine the approximate latitude and longitude of Currituck County Airport.
A) 47°24'N - 75°58'W.
B) 36°48'N - 76°01'W.
C) 36°24'N - 76°01'W.

If recency of experience requirements for night flight are not met and official sunset is 1830, the latest time passengers may be carried is
A) 1829.
B) 1859.
C) 1929.

The presence of ice pellets at the surface is evidence that there
A) are thunderstorms in the area.
B) is a temperature inversion with freezing rain at a higher altitude.
C) has been cold frontal passage.

(Refer to figure 35.) What is the maximum amount of baggage that may be loaded aboard the airplane for the CG to remain within the moment envelope?
Empty weight 1,350 51.5
Pilot and front passenger 250 ---
Rear passengers 400 ---
Baggage --- ---
Fuel, 30 gal --- ---
Oil, 8 qt --- -0.2

A) 120 pounds.
B) 105 pounds.
C) 110 pounds.

(Refer to figure 23, area 3.) The vertical limits of that portion of Class E airspace designated as a Federal Airway over Magee Airport are
A) 1,200 feet AGL to 17,999 feet MSL.
B) 700 feet MSL to 12,500 feet MSL.
C) 7,500 feet MSL to 17,999 feet MSL.

(Refer to figure 41.) Determine the total distance required for takeoff to clear a 50-foot obstacle.
Pressure altitude 4,000 ft
Takeoff weight 2,800 lb
Headwind component Calm

A) 1,750 feet.
B) 2,000 feet.
C) 1,500 feet.

SIGMETs are issued as a warning of weather conditions hazardous to which aircraft?
A) All aircraft.
B) Small aircraft only.
C) Large aircraft only.

An aircraft's annual inspection was performed on July 12, this year. The next annual inspection will be due no later than
A) July 31, next year.
B) July 1, next year.
C) July 13, next year.

(Refer to figure 24.) What is the approximate position of the aircraft if the VOR receivers indicate the 320° radial of Savannah VORTAC (area 3) and the 184° radial of Allendale VOR (area 1)?
A) Town of Springfield.
B) Town of Guyton.
C) 3 miles east of Marlow.

Which aircraft has the right-of-way over all other air traffic?
A) An aircraft on final approach to land.
B) An aircraft in distress.
C) A balloon.

Rapid or extra deep breathing while using oxygen can cause a condition known as
A) aerotitis.
B) hyperventilation.
C) aerosinusitis.

(Refer to figure 25.) Determine the magnetic course from Airpark East Airport (area 1) to Winnsboro Airport (area 2). Magnetic variation is 6°30'E.
A) 082°.
B) 075°.
C) 091°.

(Refer to figures 33 and 34.) What is the maximum amount of baggage that can be carried when the airplane is loaded as follows?
Front seat occupants 387 lb
Rear seat occupants 293 lb
Fuel 35 gal

A) 220 pounds.
B) 63 pounds.
C) 45 pounds.

What is one of the neglected items when a pilot relies on short and long term memory for repetitive tasks?
A) Flying outside the envelope.
B) Checklists.
C) Situation awareness.

The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during nighttime hours is to use
A) regularly spaced concentration on the 3-, 9-, and 12-o'clock positions.
B) a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 30-degree sector.
C) peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing offcenter viewing.

No person may use an ATC transponder unless it has been tested and inspected within at least the preceding
A) 6 calendar months.
B) 24 calendar months.
C) 12 calendar months.

(Refer to figure 26, area 7.) The airspace overlying Mc Kinney (TKI) is controlled from the surface to
A) 2,900 feet MSL.
B) 2,500 feet MSL.
C) 700 feet AGL.

After takeoff, which airspeed would the pilot use to gain the most altitude in a given period of time?
A) VX.
B) VY.
C) VA.

What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace?
A) Recreational Pilot Certificate.
B) Private Pilot Certificate with an instrument rating.
C) Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements.

If a recreational or private pilot had a flight review on August 8, this year, when is the next flight review required?
A) August 8, 2 years later.
B) August 31, 2 years later.
C) August 31, next year.

Which records or documents shall the owner or operator of an aircraft keep to show compliance with an applicable Airworthiness Directive?
A) Airworthiness and Registration Certificates.
B) Airworthiness Certificate and Pilot's Operating Handbook.
C) Aircraft maintenance records.

Under what condition may an aircraft operate from a satellite airport within Class C airspace?
A) The pilot must file a flight plan prior to departure.
B) The pilot must monitor ATC until clear of the Class C airspace.
C) The pilot must contact ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff.

One weather phenomenon which will always occur when flying across a front is a change in the
A) type of precipitation.
B) stability of the air mass.
C) wind direction.

Upon encountering severe turbulence, which flight condition should the pilot attempt to maintain?
A) Level flight attitude.
B) Constant angle of attack.
C) Constant altitude and airspeed.

Which would most likely cause the cylinder head temperature and engine oil temperature gauges to exceed their normal operating ranges?
A) Using fuel that has a higher-than-specified fuel rating.
B) Operating with higher-than-normal oil pressure.
C) Using fuel that has a lower-than-specified fuel rating.

(Refer to figure 28.) An aircraft departs an airport in the eastern daylight time zone at 0945 EDT for a 2-hour flight to an airport located in the central daylight time zone. The landing should be at what coordinated universal time?
A) 1545Z.
B) 1445Z.
C) 1345Z.

No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight
A) except by prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft.
B) in Class D airspace under special VFR.
C) over a densely populated area.

Which operation would be described as preventive maintenance?
A) Repair of landing gear brace struts.
B) Repair of portions of skin sheets by making additional seams.
C) Replenishing hydraulic fluid.

When must the battery in an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be replaced (or recharged if the battery is rechargeable)?
A) After one-half the battery's useful life.
B) During each annual and 100-hour inspection.
C) Every 24 calendar months.

Under what conditions may objects be dropped from an aircraft?
A) If prior permission is received from the Federal Aviation Administration.
B) Only in an emergency.
C) If precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property on the surface.

The wind at 5,000 feet AGL is southwesterly while the surface wind is southerly. This difference in direction is primarily due to
A) stronger pressure gradient at higher altitudes.
B) stronger Coriolis force at the surface.
C) friction between the wind and the surface.

The responsibility for ensuring that an aircraft is maintained in an airworthy condition is primarily that of the
A) pilot in command.
B) owner or operator.
C) mechanic who performs the work.

(Refer to figure 8.) Determine the pressure altitude at an airport that is 3,563 feet MSL with an altimeter setting of 29.96.
A) 3,639 feet MSL.
B) 3,527 feet MSL.
C) 3,556 feet MSL.

The responsibility for ensuring that maintenance personnel make the appropriate entries in the aircraft maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service lies with the
A) mechanic who performed the work.
B) pilot in command.
C) owner or operator.

Thunderstorms which generally produce the most intense hazard to aircraft are
A) steady-state thunderstorms.
B) squall line thunderstorms.
C) warm front thunderstorms.

What does the red line on an airspeed indicator represent?
A) Never-exceed speed.
B) Turbulent or rough-air speed.
C) Maneuvering speed.

(Refer to figure 53.) Which type radar service is provided to VFR aircraft at Lincoln Municipal?
A) Sequencing to the primary Class C airport and conflict resolution so that radar targets do not touch, or 1,000 feet vertical separation.
B) Sequencing to the primary Class C airport and standard separation.
C) Sequencing to the primary Class C airport, traffic advisories, conflict resolution, and safety alerts.

A pilot can expect a wind-shear zone in a temperature inversion whenever the windspeed at 2,000 to 4,000 feet above the surface is at least
A) 10 knots.
B) 25 knots.
C) 15 knots.

A slightly high glide slope indication from a precision approach path indicator is
A) two white lights and two red lights.
B) three white lights and one red light.
C) four white lights.

What ATC facility should the pilot contact to receive a special VFR departure clearance in Class D airspace?
A) Automated Flight Service Station.
B) Air Traffic Control Tower.
C) Air Route Traffic Control Center.

During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility for VFR flight at night is
A) 1 mile.
B) 5 miles.
C) 3 miles.

(Refer to figure 24, area 3.) What is the floor of the Savannah Class C airspace at the shelf area (outer circle)?
A) 1,300 feet AGL.
B) 1,300 feet MSL.
C) 1,700 feet MSL.

When telephoning a weather briefing facility for preflight weather information, pilots should state
A) true airspeed .
B) the aircraft identification or the pilot’s name .
C) fuel on board.

An approved chair-type parachute may be carried in an aircraft for emergency use if it has been packed by an appropriately rated parachute rigger within the preceding
A) 365 days.
B) 120 days.
C) 180 days.

(Refer to figure 14.) If the terrain elevation is 1,295 feet MSL, what is the height above ground level of the base of the ceiling?
A) 505 feet AGL.
B) 6,586 feet AGL.
C) 1,295 feet AGL.

(Refer to figure 22.) What course should be selected on the omnibearing selector (OBS) to make a direct flight from Mercer County Regional Airport (area 3) to the Minot VORTAC (area 1) with a TO indication?
A) 359°.
B) 179°.
C) 001°.

(Refer to figure 15.) In the TAF from KOKC, the clear sky becomes
A) overcast at 200 feet with a 40 percent probability of becoming overcast at 600 feet during the forecast period between 2200Z and 2400Z.
B) overcast at 2,000 feet during the forecast period between 2200Z and 2400Z.
C) overcast at 200 feet with the probability of becoming overcast at 400 feet during the forecast period between 2200Z and 2400Z.

What are characteristics of unstable air?
A) Turbulence and good surface visibility.
B) Turbulence and poor surface visibility.
C) Nimbostratus clouds and good surface visibility.

What is the definition of a high-performance airplane?
A) An airplane with 180 horsepower, or retractable landing gear, flaps, and a fixed-pitch propeller.
B) An airplane with a normal cruise speed in excess of 200 knots.
C) An airplane with an engine of more than 200 horsepower.

Which factor would tend to increase the density altitude at a given airport?
A) An increase in barometric pressure.
B) An increase in ambient temperature.
C) A decrease in relative humidity.

If a flight is made from an area of low pressure into an area of high pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate
A) lower than the actual altitude above sea level.
B) the actual altitude above sea level.
C) higher than the actual altitude above sea level.

If the engine oil temperature and cylinder head temperature gauges have exceeded their normal operating range, the pilot may have been operating with
A) higher-than-normal oil pressure.
B) the mixture set too rich.
C) too much power and with the mixture set too lean.

The lateral dimensions of Class D airspace are based on
A) 5 statute miles from the geographical center of the primary airport.
B) the instrument procedures for which the controlled airspace is established.
C) the number of airports that lie within the Class D airspace.

Deviation in a magnetic compass is caused by the
A) magnetic fields within the aircraft distorting the lines of magnetic force.
B) difference in the location between true north and magnetic north.
C) presence of flaws in the permanent magnets of the compass.

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Join date : 2009-11-30
Location : Melbourne, Australia


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