CPL Prac Questions Sec 3.

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CPL Prac Questions Sec 3. Empty CPL Prac Questions Sec 3.

Post  Admin on Thu Dec 03, 2009 3:57 am

One of the most dangerous features of mountain waves is the turbulent areas in and
A) above rotor clouds.
B) below lenticular clouds.
C) below rotor clouds.

A pilot flying a single-engine airplane observes a multiengine airplane approaching from the left. Which pilot should give way?
A) The pilot of the multiengine airplane should give way; the single-engine airplane is to its right.
B) The pilot of the single-engine airplane should give way; the other airplane is to the left.
C) Each pilot should alter course to the right.

Which is true regarding flight operations in Class B airspace?
A) Solo student pilot operations are not authorized.
B) The pilot must receive an ATC clearance before operating an aircraft in that area.
C) Flight under VFR is not authorized unless the pilot in command is instrument rated.

Which in-flight hazard is most commonly associated with warm fronts?
A) Precipitation-induced fog.
B) Radiation fog.
C) Advection fog.

To obtain a continuous transcribed weather briefing including winds aloft and route forecasts for a cross-country flight, a pilot could monitor
A) the regularly scheduled weather broadcast on a VOR frequency.
B) a high-frequency radio receiver tuned to En Route Flight Advisory Service.
C) a TWEB on a low-frequency and/or VOR receiver.

From which measurement of the atmosphere can stability be determined?
A) The dry adiabatic lapse rate.
B) Atmospheric pressure.
C) The ambient lapse rate.

What lifts advection fog into low stratus clouds?
A) Nighttime cooling.
B) Surface winds of approximately 15 knots or stronger.
C) Dryness of the underlying land mass.

How should the pilot make a VOR receiver check when the aircraft is located on the designated checkpoint on the airport surface?
A) Set the OBS on the designated radial. The CDI must center within plus or minus 4° of that radial with a FROM indication.
B) With the aircraft headed directly toward the VOR and the OBS set to 000°, the CDI should center within plus or minus 4° of that radial with a TO indication.
C) Set the OBS on 180° plus or minus 4°; the CDI should center with a FROM indication.

Who is primarily responsible for maintaining an aircraft in an airworthy condition?
A) The lead mechanic responsible for that aircraft.
B) Owner or operator of the aircraft.
C) Pilot in command or operator.

A coded transponder equipped with altitude reporting equipment is required for
1. Class A, Class B, and Class C airspace areas.
2. all airspace of the 48 contiguous U.S. and District of Columbia at and above 10,000 feet MSL (including airspace at and below 2,500 feet above the surface).
A) Both 1 and 2.
B) 2.
C) 1.

Approved flotation gear, readily available to each occupant, is required on each aircraft if it is being flown for hire over water,
A) in amphibious aircraft beyond 50 NM from shore.
B) beyond power-off gliding distance from shore.
C) more than 50 statute miles from shore.

Terminal Aerodrome Forecasts (TAF) are issued how many times a day and cover what period of time?
A) Four times daily and are usually valid for a 24 hour period.
B) Six times daily and are usually valid for a 24 hour period including a 4-hour categorical outlook.
C) Six times daily and are usually valid for a 24 hour period including a 6-hour categorical outlook.

Who has the final authority to accept or decline any 'land and hold short' (LAHSO) clearance?
A) ATC tower controller.
B) Airplane owner/operator.
C) Pilot-in-command.

What person is directly responsible for the final authority as to the operation of the airplane?
A) Pilot in command.
B) Certificate holder.
C) Airplane owner/operator.

Operating regulations for U.S.-registered civil airplanes require that during movement on the surface, takeoffs, and landings, a seat belt and shoulder harness (if installed) must be properly secured about each
A) flight crewmember only.
B) flight and cabin crewmembers.
C) person on board.

Hazardous wind shear is commonly encountered
A) in areas of temperature inversion and near thunderstorms.
B) near warm or stationary frontal activity.
C) when the wind velocity is stronger than 35 knots.

Which statement is true regarding squall lines?
A) They are slow in forming, but rapid in movement.
B) They are always associated with cold fronts.
C) They are nonfrontal and often contain severe, steady-state thunderstorms.

Fog produced by frontal activity is a result of saturation due to
A) nocturnal cooling.
B) adiabatic cooling.
C) evaporation of precipitation.

The presence of standing lenticular altocumulus clouds is a good indication of
A) heavy icing conditions.
B) very strong turbulence.
C) lenticular ice formation in calm air.

With regard to windflow patterns shown on surface analysis charts; when the isobars are
A) close together, the pressure gradient force is slight and wind velocities are weaker.
B) not close together, the pressure gradient force is greater and wind velocities are stronger.
C) close together, the pressure gradient force is greater and wind velocities are stronger.

If not equipped with required position lights, an aircraft must terminate flight
A) 30 minutes after sunset.
B) at sunset.
C) 1 hour after sunset.

Choose the correct statement regarding wake turbulence.
A) The primary hazard is loss of control because of induced roll.
B) Vortex generation begins with the initiation of the takeoff roll.
C) The greatest vortex strength is produced when the generating airplane is heavy, clean, and fast.

(Refer to figure 51.) While clearing an active runway, you are most likely clear of the ILS critical area when you pass which symbol?
A) Bottom yellow.
B) Top red.
C) Middle yellow.

A situation most conducive to the formation of advection fog is
A) an air mass moving inland from the coastline during the winter.
B) a warm, moist air mass settling over a cool surface under no-wind conditions.
C) a light breeze moving colder air over a water surface.

VFR cruising altitudes are required to be maintained when flying
A) more than 3,000 feet AGL, based on magnetic course.
B) at 3,000 feet or more AGL, based on true course.
C) at 3,000 feet or more above MSL, based on magnetic heading.

Which is required equipment for powered aircraft during VFR night flights?
A) Sensitive altimeter adjustable for barometric pressure.
B) Flashlight with red lens, if the flight is for hire.
C) An electric landing light, if the flight is for hire.

Which is correct concerning preventive maintenance, when accomplished by a pilot?
A) A record of preventive maintenance must be entered in the maintenance records.
B) Records of preventive maintenance must be entered in the FAA-approved flight
C) A record of preventive maintenance is not required.

With respect to vortex circulation, which is true?
A) The vortex strength is greatest when the generating aircraft is flying fast.
B) Helicopters generate downwash turbulence, not vortex circulation.
C) Vortex circulation generated by helicopters in forward flight trail behind in a manner similar to wingtip vortices generated by airplanes.

The most severe weather conditions, such as destructive winds, heavy hail, and tornadoes, are generally associated with
A) slow-moving warm fronts which slope above the tropopause.
B) fast-moving occluded fronts.
C) squall lines.

Hypoxia is the result of which of these conditions?
A) Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain.
B) Excessive oxygen in the bloodstream.
C) Excessive carbon dioxide in the bloodstream.

Which is true regarding flight operations to or from a satellite airport, without an operating control tower, within the Class C airspace area?
A) Prior to takeoff, a pilot must establish communication with the ATC controlling facility.
B) Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder.
C) Prior to entering that airspace, a pilot must establish and maintain communication with the ATC serving facility.

Two aircraft of the same category are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing. The right-of-way belongs to the aircraft
A) that is more maneuverable, and that aircraft may, with caution, move in front of or overtake the other aircraft.
B) at the higher altitude.
C) at the lower altitude, but the pilot shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to overtake the other aircraft.

Which is true regarding flight operations in Class A airspace?
A) Aircraft must be equipped with approved distance measuring equipment (DME).
B) May conduct operations under visual flight rules.
C) Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment.

When operating an aircraft in the vicinity of an airport with an operating control tower, in Class E airspace, a pilot must establish communications prior to
A) 4 NM, and up to and including 2,500 feet AGL.
B) 5 NM, and up to and including 3,000 feet AGL.
C) 8 NM, and up to and including 3,000 feet AGL.

When the CDI needle is centered during an airborne VOR check, the omnibearing selector should read
A) 0° TO, only if you are due south of the VOR.
B) within 4° of the selected radial.
C) within 6° of the selected radial.

(Refer to figure 51.) When taxiing up to an active runway, you are likely to be clear of the ILS critical area when short of which symbol?
A) Top red.
B) Middle yellow.
C) Bottom yellow.

If airborne radar is indicating an extremely intense thunderstorm echo, this thunderstorm should be avoided by a distance of at least
A) 5 miles.
B) 10 miles.
C) 20 miles.

While flying cross-country, in the Northern Hemisphere, you experience a continuous left crosswind which is associated with a major wind system. This indicates that you
A) have flown from an area of unfavorable weather conditions.
B) cannot determine weather conditions without knowing pressure changes.
C) are flying toward an area of generally unfavorable weather conditions.

To serve as pilot in command of an airplane that is certified for more than one pilot crewmember, and operated under part 91, a person must
A) receive and log ground and flight training from an authorized flight instructor.
B) complete a pilot-in-command proficiency check within the preceding 12 calendar months in an airplane that is type certificated for more than one pilot.
C) complete a flight review within the preceding 24 calendar months.

Why does the wind have a tendency to flow parallel to the isobars above the friction level?
A) Coriolis force acts perpendicular to a line connecting the highs and lows.
B) Coriolis force tends to counterbalance the horizontal pressure gradient.
C) Friction of the air with the Earth deflects the air perpendicular to the pressure gradient.

Aircraft maintenance records must include the current status of the
A) life-limited parts of only the engine and airframe.
B) life-limited parts of each airframe, engine, propeller, rotor, and appliance.
C) applicable airworthiness certificate.

What significant cloud coverage is reported by this pilot report?
UA/OV 15NW MOB 1340Z/SK OVC 025/045 OVC 090
A) Three (3) separate overcast layers exist with bases at 250, 7,500 and 9,000 feet.
B) The base of the second overcast layer is 2,500 feet; top of second overcast layer is 7,500 feet; base of third layer is 9,000 feet.
C) The top of the lower overcast is 2,500 feet; base and top of second overcast layer is 4,500 and 9,000 feet, respectively.

The Telephone Information Briefing Service (TIBS) provided by AFSSs includes
A) recorded weather briefing service for the local area, usually within 50 miles and route forecasts.
B) weather information service on a common frequency (122.0 mHz).
C) continuous recording of meteorological and/or aeronautical information available by telephone.

Which is true with respect to formation flights? Formation flights are
A) not authorized, except by arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft.
B) not authorized, unless the pilot in command of each aircraft is trained and found competent in formation.
C) authorized when carrying passengers for hire, with prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft in the formation.

Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, the maximum indicated airspeed permitted when at or below 2,500 feet AGL within 4 NM of the primary airport within Class C or D airspace is
A) 200 knots.
B) 180 knots.
C) 230 knots.

What determines the structure or type of clouds which will form as a result of air being forced to ascend?
A) The method by which the air is lifted.
B) The stability of the air before lifting occurs.
C) The relative humidity of the air after lifting occurs.

During a takeoff made behind a departing large jet airplane, the pilot can minimize the hazard of wingtip vortices by
A) extending the takeoff roll and not rotating until well beyond the jet's rotation point.
B) being airborne prior to reaching the jet's flightpath until able to turn clear of its wake.
C) maintaining extra speed on takeoff and climbout.

Which of the following are considered aircraft class ratings?
A) Transport, normal, utility, and acrobatic.
B) Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, and lighter-than-air.
C) Single-engine land, multiengine land, single-engine sea, and multiengine sea.

In what ways do advection fog, radiation fog, and steam fog differ in their formation or location?
A) Steam fog forms from moist air moving over a colder surface; advection fog requires cold air over a warmer surface; radiation fog is produced by radiational cooling of the ground.
B) Radiation fog is restricted to land areas; advection fog is most common along coastal areas; steam fog forms over a water surface.
C) Advection fog deepens as windspeed increases up to 20 knots; steam fog requires calm or very light wind; radiation fog forms when the ground or water cools the air by radiation.

Hail is most likely to be associated with
A) cumulus clouds.
B) stratocumulus clouds.
C) cumulonimbus clouds.

What transponder equipment is required for airplane operations within Class B airspace? A transponder
A) is required for airplane operations when visibility is less than 3 miles.
B) with 4096 code or Mode S, and Mode C capability.
C) with 4096 code capability is required except when operating at or below 1,000 feet AGL under the terms of a letter of agreement.

What is the approximate base of the cumulus clouds if the temperature at 2,000 feet MSL is 10 °C. and the dewpoint is 1 °C?
A) 6,000 feet MSL.
B) 4,000 feet MSL.
C) 3,000 feet MSL.

When landing behind a large aircraft, which procedure should be followed for vortex avoidance?
A) Stay above its final approach flightpath all the way to touchdown.
B) Stay below and to one side of its final approach flightpath.
C) Stay well below its final approach flightpath and land at least 2,000 feet behind.

Which is true regarding actual air temperature and dewpoint temperature spread? The temperature spread
A) decreases as the relative humidity decreases.
B) decreases as the relative humidity increases.
C) increases as the relative humidity increases.

Which procedure should you follow to avoid wake turbulence if a large jet crosses your course from left to right approximately 1 mile ahead and at your altitude?
A) Slow your airspeed to VA and maintain altitude and course.
B) Make sure you are slightly below the path of the jet and perpendicular to the course.
C) Make sure you are slightly above the path of the jet.

To scan properly for traffic, a pilot should
A) concentrate on any peripheral movement detected.
B) slowly sweep the field of vision from one side to the other at intervals.
C) use a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements that bring successive areas of the sky into the central visual field.

If an aircraft's operation in flight was substantially affected by an alteration or repair, the aircraft documents must show that it was test flown and approved for return to service by an appropriately-rated pilot prior to being operated
A) under VFR or IFR rules.
B) for compensation or hire.
C) with passengers aboard.

Each required flight crewmember is required to keep his or her shoulder harness fastened
A) during takeoff and landing only when passengers are aboard the aircraft.
B) during takeoff and landing, unless he or she is unable to perform required duties.
C) while the crewmembers are at their stations, unless he or she is unable to perform required duties.

Which statement pertaining to the following Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) is true?
KMEM 091135Z 0915 15005KT 5SM HZ BKN060
A) SKC in the valid period indicates no significant weather and sky clear.
B) Wind direction is from 160° at 4 KTS and reported visibility is 6 statute miles.
C) Wind in the valid period implies surface winds are forecast to be greater than 5 KTS

In accordance with 14 CFR part 91, supplemental oxygen must be used by the required minimum flightcrew for that time exceeding 30 minutes while at cabin pressure altitudes of
A) 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL.
B) 12,000 feet MSL up to and including 18,000 feet MSL.
C) 10,500 feet MSL up to and including 12,500 feet MSL.

Which is true regarding high or low pressure systems?
A) Both high- and low-pressure areas are characterized by descending air.
B) A low-pressure area or trough is an area of rising air.
C) A high-pressure area or ridge is an area of rising air.

The general circulation of air associated with a high-pressure area in the Northern Hemisphere is
A) outward, upward, and clockwise.
B) outward, downward, and clockwise.
C) inward, downward, and clockwise.

The Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service (HIWAS) is a broadcast service over selected VORs that provides
A) continuous broadcast of inflight weather advisories.
B) SIGMETs and AIRMETs at 15 minutes and 45 minutes past the hour for the first hour after issuance.
C) SIGMETs, CONVECTIVE SIGMETs and AIRMETs at 15 minutes and 45 minutes past the hour.

What type weather can one expect from moist, unstable air, and very warm surface temperatures?
A) Strong updrafts and cumulonimbus clouds.
B) Continuous heavy precipitation.
C) Fog and low stratus clouds.

While in flight a helicopter and an airplane are converging at a 90° angle, and the helicopter is located to the right of the airplane. Which aircraft has the right-of-way, and why?
A) The airplane, because airplanes have the right-of-way over helicopters.
B) The helicopter, because helicopters have the right-of-way over airplanes.
C) The helicopter, because it is to the right of the airplane.

What is the standard temperature at 10,000 feet?
A) -5 °C.
B) -15 °C.
C) +5 °C.

During a night operation, the pilot of aircraft #1 sees only the green light of aircraft #2. If the aircraft are converging, which pilot has the right-of-way? The pilot of aircraft
A) #2; aircraft #2 is to the left of aircraft #1.
B) #2; aircraft #2 is to the right of aircraft #1
C) #1; aircraft #1 is to the right of aircraft #2.

A new maintenance record being used for an aircraft engine rebuilt by the manufacturer must include previous
A) annual inspections performed on the engine.
B) operating hours of the engine.
C) changes as required by Airworthiness Directives.

When operating an airplane for the purpose of takeoff or landing within Class D airspace under special VFR, what minimum distance from clouds and what visibility are required?
A) 500 feet beneath clouds, and the ground visibility must be at least 1 SM.
B) Remain clear of clouds, and the ground visibility must be at least 1 SM.
C) Remain clear of clouds, and the flight visibility must be at least 1 NM.

What weather phenomenon is implied within an area enclosed by small scalloped lines on a U.S. High-Level Significant Weather Prognostic Chart?
A) Cumuliform or standing lenticular clouds, moderate to severe turbulence, and icing.
B) Cumulonimbus clouds, icing, and moderate or greater turbulence.
C) Cirriform clouds, light to moderate turbulence, and icing.

Commercial pilots are required to have a valid and appropriate pilot certificate in their physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft when
A) acting as pilot in command.
B) carrying passengers only.
C) piloting for hire only.

The maximum cumulative time that an emergency locator transmitter may be operated before the rechargeable battery must be recharged is
A) 30 minutes.
B) 60 minutes.
C) 45 minutes.

Which statement is true concerning the hazards of hail?
A) Hail damage in horizontal flight is minimal due to the vertical movement of hail in the clouds.
B) Rain at the surface is a reliable indication of no hail aloft.
C) Hailstones may be encountered in clear air several miles from a thunderstorm.

The visibility entry in a Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) of P6SM implies that the prevailing visibility is expected to be greater than
A) 6 statute miles.
B) 6 kilometers.
C) 6 nautical miles.

Moisture is added to a parcel of air by
A) evaporation and sublimation.
B) evaporation and condensation.
C) sublimation and condensation.

What is the meaning of the terms PROB40 2102 +TSRA as used in a Terminal Aerodrome Forecasts (TAF)
A) Beginning at 2102Z forty percent (40%) probability of heavy thunderstorms and rain showers.
B) Between 2100Z and 0200Z there is a forty percent (40%) probability of thunderstorms with heavy rain.
C) Probability of heavy thunderstorms with rain showers below 4000 feet at time 2102.

Convective currents are most active on warm summer afternoons when winds are
A) moderate.
B) light.
C) strong.

What are the characteristics of stable air?
A) Poor visibility; steady precipitation; stratus clouds.
B) Good visibility; steady precipitation; stratus clouds.
C) Poor visibility; intermittent precipitation; cumulus clouds.

The remarks section of the Aviation Routine Weather Report (METAR) contains the following coded information. What does it mean?
A) Freezing drizzle below 4,500 feet and wind shear
B) Freezing drizzle with cloud bases below 4,500 feet.
C) Wind shift at three zero due to frontal passage.

Which situation would most likely result in freezing precipitation? Rain falling from air which has a temperature of
A) 0 °C or less into air having a temperature of 0 °C or more.
B) more than 32 °F into air having a temperature of 32 °F or less.
C) 32 °F or less into air having a temperature of more than 32 °F.

What is indicated if ice pellets are encountered at 8,000 feet?
A) Freezing rain at higher altitude.
B) You are approaching an area of thunderstorms.
C) You will encounter hail if you continue your flight.

The station originating the following METAR observation has a field elevation of 3,500 feet MSL. If the sky cover is one continuous layer, what is the thickness of the cloud layer? (Top of overcast reported at 7,500 feet MSL).

METAR KHOB 151250Z 17006KT 4SM OVC005 13/11 A2998
A) 2,500 feet
B) 3 ,500 feet.
C) 4,000 feet.

During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts?
A) Mature.
B) Dissipating.
C) Developing.

Which would increase the stability of an air mass?
A) Warming from below.
B) Cooling from below.
C) Decrease in water vapor.

What is the upper limit of the Low Level Significant Weather Prognostic Chart?
A) 30,000 feet.
B) 18,000 feet.
C) 24,000 feet.

What is the minimum flight visibility and proximity to cloud requirements for VFR flight, at 6,500 feet MSL, in Class C, D, and E airspace?
A) 5 miles visibility; 1,000 feet above and 1,000 feet below.
B) 1 mile visibility; clear of clouds.
C) 3 miles visibility; 1,000 feet above and 500 feet below.

Which is true relating to Airworthiness Directives (AD's) ?
A) Compliance with AD's is the responsibility of maintenance personnel.
B) AD's are advisory in nature and are, generally, not addressed immediately.
C) Noncompliance with AD's renders an aircraft unairworthy.

Which is true regarding pilot certification requirements for operations in Class B airspace?
A) Solo student pilot operations are not authorized.
B) The pilot in command must hold at least a private pilot certificate.
C) The pilot in command must hold at least a private pilot certificate with an instrument rating.

No person may operate a large civil aircraft of U.S. registry which is subject to a lease, unless the lessee has mailed a copy of the lease to the FAA Aircraft Registration Branch, Technical Section, Oklahoma City, OK, within how many hours of its execution?
A) 72.
B) 24.
C) 48.

During an approach, the most important and most easily recognized means of being alerted to possible wind shear is monitoring the
A) power and vertical velocity required to remain on the proper glidepath.
B) amount of trim required to relieve control pressures.
C) heading changes necessary to remain on the runway centerline.

Which weather chart depicts conditions forecast to exist at a specific time in the future?
A) Freezing Level Chart.
B) Weather Depiction Chart.
C) 12-Hour Significant Weather Prognostic Chart.

To avoid possible wake turbulence from a large jet aircraft that has just landed prior to your takeoff, at which point on the runway should you plan to become airborne?
A) Past the point where the jet touched down.
B) Approximately 500 feet prior to the point where the jet touched down.
C) At the point where the jet touched down, or just prior to this point.

A standard airworthiness certificate remains in effect as long as the aircraft receives
A) required maintenance and inspections.
B) an annual inspection and a 100-hour inspection prior to their expiration dates.
C) an annual inspection.

When weather information indicates that abnormally high barometric pressure exists, or will be above _____ inches of mercury, flight operations will not be authorized contrary to the requirements published in NOTAMs.
A) 31.00
B) 30.50
C) 32.00

Before beginning any flight under IFR, the pilot in command must become familiar with all available information concerning that flight. In addition, the pilot must
A) list an alternate airport on the flight plan, and confirm adequate takeoff and landing performance at the destination airport.
B) be familiar with the runway lengths at airports of intended use, weather reports, fuel requirements, and alternatives available, if the planned flight cannot be completed.
C) be familiar with all instrument approaches at the destination airport.

Which is the best technique for minimizing the wing-load factor when flying in severe turbulence?
A) Set power and trim to obtain an airspeed at or below maneuvering speed, maintain wings level, and accept variations of airspeed and altitude.
B) Control airspeed with power, maintain wings level, and accept variations of altitude.
C) Change power settings, as necessary, to maintain constant airspeed.

Select the true statement pertaining to the life cycle of a thunderstorm.
A) The beginning of rain at the Earth's surface indicates the dissipating stage of the thunderstorm.
B) Updrafts continue to develop throughout the dissipating stage of a thunderstorm.
C) The beginning of rain at the Earth's surface indicates the mature stage of the thunderstorm.

Airplane A is overtaking airplane B. Which airplane has the right-of-way?
A) Airplane B; the pilot should expect to be passed on the right.
B) Airplane B; the pilot should expect to be passed on the left.
C) Airplane A; the pilot should alter course to the right to pass.

A moist, unstable air mass is characterized by
A) poor visibility and smooth air.
B) cumuliform clouds and showery precipitation.
C) stratiform clouds and continuous precipitation.

Which statement is true concerning squall lines?
A) They are associated with frontal systems only.
B) They offer the most intense weather hazards to aircraft.
C) They form slowly, but move rapidly.

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Join date : 2009-11-30
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