# CPL Prac Questions Sec 4.

## CPL Prac Questions Sec 4.

5373
What minimum distance should exist between intense radar echoes before any attempt is made to fly between these thunderstorms?
A) 40 miles.
B) 20 miles.
C) 30 miles.

5560
A) selected low-frequency and/or VOR navigational aids.
B) ARTCCs on all frequencies, except emergency, when any part of the area described is within 150 miles of the airspace under their jurisdiction.
C) AFSSs on 122.2 MHz and adjacent VORs, when any part of the area described is within 200 miles of the airspace under their jurisdiction.

5400
The Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service (HIWAS) is a broadcast service over selected VORs that provides
A) SIGMETs and AIRMETs at 15 minutes and 45 minutes past the hour for the first hour after issuance.
B) SIGMETs, CONVECTIVE SIGMETs and AIRMETs at 15 minutes and 45 minutes past the hour.

5336
Which would increase the stability of an air mass?
A) Warming from below.
B) Decrease in water vapor.
C) Cooling from below.

5114
What altimeter setting is required when operating an aircraft at 18,000 feet MSL?
A) 29.92 Inches Hg.
B) Current reported altimeter setting of a station along the route.
C) Altimeter setting at the departure or destination airport.

5741
Which is the best technique for minimizing the wing-load factor when flying in severe turbulence?
A) Control airspeed with power, maintain wings level, and accept variations of altitude.
B) Set power and trim to obtain an airspeed at or below maneuvering speed, maintain wings level, and accept variations of airspeed and altitude.
C) Change power settings, as necessary, to maintain constant airspeed.

5409
What is the meaning of the terms PROB40 2102 +TSRA as used in a Terminal Aerodrome Forecasts (TAF)
A) Probability of heavy thunderstorms with rain showers below 4000 feet at time 2102.
B) Between 2100Z and 0200Z there is a forty percent (40%) probability of thunderstorms with heavy rain.
C) Beginning at 2102Z forty percent (40%) probability of heavy thunderstorms and rain showers.

5090
To operate an airplane under SPECIAL VFR (SVFR) within Class D airspace at night, which is required?
A) The pilot must hold an instrument rating, and the airplane must be equipped for instrument flight.
B) The Class D airspace must be specifically designated as a night SVFR area.
C) The pilot must hold an instrument rating, but the airplane need not be equipped for instrument flight, as long as the weather will remain at or above SVFR minimums.

5755
With respect to vortex circulation, which is true?
A) Vortex circulation generated by helicopters in forward flight trail behind in a manner similar to wingtip vortices generated by airplanes.
B) Helicopters generate downwash turbulence, not vortex circulation.
C) The vortex strength is greatest when the generating aircraft is flying fast.

5374
Which in-flight hazard is most commonly associated with warm fronts?
C) Precipitation-induced fog.

5329
If clouds form as a result of very stable, moist air being forced to ascend a mountain slope, the clouds will be
A) cumulus type with considerable vertical development and turbulence.
B) cirrus type with no vertical development or turbulence.
C) stratus type with little vertical development and little or no turbulence.

5325
What is indicated if ice pellets are encountered at 8,000 feet?
A) You will encounter hail if you continue your flight.
B) Freezing rain at higher altitude.
C) You are approaching an area of thunderstorms.

5552
When using VOT to make a VOR receiver check, the CDI should be centered and the OBS should indicate that the aircraft is on the

5064
What are the oxygen requirements when operating at cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000 feet MSL?
A) Oxygen is not required at any altitude in a balloon.
B) The flightcrew and passengers must be provided with supplemental oxygen.
C) Oxygen must be available for the flightcrew.

5082
Which is true regarding flight operations in Class B airspace?
A) The pilot must receive an ATC clearance before operating an aircraft in that area.
B) Flight under VFR is not authorized unless the pilot in command is instrument rated.
C) Solo student pilot operations are not authorized.

5120
Which is true regarding flight operations in Class A airspace?
A) Aircraft must be equipped with approved distance measuring equipment (DME).
B) May conduct operations under visual flight rules.
C) Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment.

5025
What flight time may a pilot log as second in command?
A) All flight time when qualified and occupying a crewmember station in an aircraft that requires more than one pilot.
B) All flight time while acting as second in command in aircraft configured for more than one pilot.
C) Only that flight time during which the second in command is the sole manipulator of the controls.

5074
While in flight a helicopter and an airplane are converging at a 90° angle, and the helicopter is located to the right of the airplane. Which aircraft has the right-of-way, and why?
A) The helicopter, because helicopters have the right-of-way over airplanes.
B) The airplane, because airplanes have the right-of-way over helicopters.
C) The helicopter, because it is to the right of the airplane.

5314
With regard to windflow patterns shown on surface analysis charts; when the isobars are
A) close together, the pressure gradient force is greater and wind velocities are stronger.
B) close together, the pressure gradient force is slight and wind velocities are weaker.
C) not close together, the pressure gradient force is greater and wind velocities are stronger.

5097
If an aircraft's operation in flight was substantially affected by an alteration or repair, the aircraft documents must show that it was test flown and approved for return to service by an appropriately-rated pilot prior to being operated
A) with passengers aboard.
B) for compensation or hire.
C) under VFR or IFR rules.

5402
The remarks section of the Aviation Routine Weather Report (METAR) contains the following coded information. What does it mean?
RMK FZDZB45 WSHFT 30 FROPA
A) Wind shift at three zero due to frontal passage.
B) Freezing drizzle below 4,500 feet and wind shear
C) Freezing drizzle with cloud bases below 4,500 feet.

5436
What is the upper limit of the Low Level Significant Weather Prognostic Chart?
A) 24,000 feet.
B) 30,000 feet.
C) 18,000 feet.

5364
Of the following, which is accurate regarding turbulence associated with thunderstorms?
A) Outside the cloud, shear turbulence can be encountered 50 miles laterally from a severe storm.
B) Outside the cloud, shear turbulence can be encountered 20 miles laterally from a severe storm.
C) Shear turbulence is encountered only inside cumulonimbus clouds or within a 5-mile radius of them.

5106
To act as pilot-in-command of an airplane with more than 200 horsepower, a person is required to
A) receive and log ground and flight training from an authorized instructor in such an airplane.
B) obtain an endorsement from a qualified pilot stating that the person is proficient to operate such an airplane.
C) receive and log ground and flight training from a qualified pilot in such an airplane.

5355
GIVEN:
Winds at 3,000 feet AGL 30 kts
Surface winds Calm
While on approach for landing, under clear skies with convective turbulence a few hours after sunrise, one should
A) increase approach airspeed slightly above normal to avoid stalling.
B) not alter the approach airspeed; these conditions are nearly ideal.
C) keep the approach airspeed at or slightly below normal to compensate for floating.

5060
A coded transponder equipped with altitude reporting equipment is required for
1. Class A, Class B, and Class C airspace areas.
2. all airspace of the 48 contiguous U.S. and District of Columbia at and above 10,000 feet MSL (including airspace at and below 2,500 feet above the surface).
A) 2.
B) Both 1 and 2.
C) 1.

5756
Which is true with respect to vortex circulation?
A) When vortex circulation sinks into ground effect, it tends to dissipate rapidly and offer little danger.
B) The vortex strength is greatest when the generating aircraft is heavy, clean, and slow.
C) Helicopters generate downwash turbulence only, not vortex circulation.

5368
Select the true statement pertaining to the life cycle of a thunderstorm.
A) The beginning of rain at the Earth's surface indicates the mature stage of the thunderstorm.
B) The beginning of rain at the Earth's surface indicates the dissipating stage of the thunderstorm.
C) Updrafts continue to develop throughout the dissipating stage of a thunderstorm.

5302
What is the standard temperature at 10,000 feet?
A) +5 °C.
B) -5 °C.
C) -15 °C.

5051
Required flight crewmembers' safety belts must be fastened
A) only during takeoff and landing when passengers are aboard the aircraft.
B) only during takeoff and landing.
C) while the crewmembers are at their stations.

5026
What flight time must be documented and recorded by a pilot exercising the privileges of a commercial certificate?
A) Only flight time for compensation or hire with passengers aboard which is necessary to meet the recent flight experience requirements.
B) Flight time showing training and aeronautical experience to meet requirements for a certificate, rating or flight review.
C) All flight time flown for compensation or hire.

5360
Which situation would most likely result in freezing precipitation? Rain falling from air which has a temperature of
A) more than 32 °F into air having a temperature of 32 °F or less.
B) 32 °F or less into air having a temperature of more than 32 °F.
C) 0 °C or less into air having a temperature of 0 °C or more.

5044
What action must be taken when a pilot in command deviates from any rule in 14 CFR part 91?
A) Upon landing, report the deviation to the nearest FAA Flight Standards District Office.
B) Upon the request of the Administrator, send a written report of that deviation to the Administrator.
C) Advise ATC of the pilot in command's intentions.

5365
If airborne radar is indicating an extremely intense thunderstorm echo, this thunderstorm should be avoided by a distance of at least
A) 20 miles.
B) 5 miles.
C) 10 miles.

5085
What is the minimum flight visibility and proximity to cloud requirements for VFR flight, at 6,500 feet MSL, in Class C, D, and E airspace?
A) 3 miles visibility; 1,000 feet above and 500 feet below.
B) 1 mile visibility; clear of clouds.
C) 5 miles visibility; 1,000 feet above and 1,000 feet below.

5338
Which cloud types would indicate convective turbulence?
A) Cirrus clouds.
B) Nimbostratus clouds.
C) Towering cumulus clouds.

5117
When operating an aircraft in the vicinity of an airport with an operating control tower, in Class E airspace, a pilot must establish communications prior to
A) 4 NM, and up to and including 2,500 feet AGL.
B) 8 NM, and up to and including 3,000 feet AGL.
C) 5 NM, and up to and including 3,000 feet AGL.

5056
Portable electronic devices which may cause interference with the navigation or communication system may not be operated on a U.S.- registered civil aircraft being flown
A) within the U.S.
B) along Federal airways.
C) in air carrier operations.

5379
In what ways do advection fog, radiation fog, and steam fog differ in their formation or location?
A) Advection fog deepens as windspeed increases up to 20 knots; steam fog requires calm or very light wind; radiation fog forms when the ground or water cools the air by radiation.
B) Steam fog forms from moist air moving over a colder surface; advection fog requires cold air over a warmer surface; radiation fog is produced by radiational cooling of the ground.
C) Radiation fog is restricted to land areas; advection fog is most common along coastal areas; steam fog forms over a water surface.

5022
When is the pilot in command required to hold a category and class rating appropriate to the aircraft being flown?
A) On flights when carrying another person.
B) All solo flights.
C) On practical tests given by an examiner or FAA Inspector.

5348
Which are characteristics of a cold air mass moving over a warm surface?
A) Stratiform clouds, smooth air, and poor visibility.
B) Cumuliform clouds, turbulence, and good visibility.
C) Cumuliform clouds, turbulence, and poor visibility.

5404
The station originating the following METAR observation has a field elevation of 3,500 feet MSL. If the sky cover is one continuous layer, what is the thickness of the cloud layer? (Top of overcast reported at 7,500 feet MSL).

METAR KHOB 151250Z 17006KT 4SM OVC005 13/11 A2998
A) 2,500 feet
B) 3 ,500 feet.
C) 4,000 feet.

5321
The general circulation of air associated with a high-pressure area in the Northern Hemisphere is
A) outward, upward, and clockwise.
B) inward, downward, and clockwise.
C) outward, downward, and clockwise.

5354
If a temperature inversion is encountered immediately after takeoff or during an approach to a landing, a potential hazard exists due to
A) strong surface winds.
B) wind shear.
C) strong convective currents.

5341
Which combination of weather-producing variables would likely result in cumuliform-type clouds, good visibility, and showery rain?
A) Stable, moist air and orographic lifting.
B) Unstable, moist air and orographic lifting.
C) Unstable, moist air and no lifting mechanism.

5107
To serve as pilot in command of an airplane that is certified for more than one pilot crewmember, and operated under part 91, a person must
A) receive and log ground and flight training from an authorized flight instructor.
B) complete a pilot-in-command proficiency check within the preceding 12 calendar months in an airplane that is type certificated for more than one pilot.
C) complete a flight review within the preceding 24 calendar months.

5370
Which weather phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm?
A) The start of rain.
B) Growth rate of cloud is maximum.
C) The appearance of an anvil top.

5403
What is meant by the Special METAR weather observation for KBOI?
SPECI KBOI 091854Z 32005KT 1 1/2SM RA BR OVC007 17/16 A2990 RMK RAB12
A) Rain and mist obstructing visibility; rain began at 1812Z.
B) Rain and overcast at 1200 feet AGL.
C) Rain and fog obscuring two-tenths of the sky; rain began at 1912Z.

5339
The presence of standing lenticular altocumulus clouds is a good indication of
A) lenticular ice formation in calm air.
B) very strong turbulence.
C) heavy icing conditions.

5758
To scan properly for traffic, a pilot should
A) slowly sweep the field of vision from one side to the other at intervals.
B) concentrate on any peripheral movement detected.
C) use a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements that bring successive areas of the sky into the central visual field.

5061
In the contiguous U.S., excluding the airspace at and below 2,500 feet AGL, an operable coded transponder equipped with Mode C capability is required in all airspace above
A) 10,000 feet MSL.
B) 12,500 feet MSL.
C) 14,500 feet MSL.

5418
What single reference contains information regarding a volcanic eruption, that is occurring or expected to occur?
B) Terminal Area Forecasts (TAF).
C) Weather Depiction Chart.

5046
When operating a U.S.-registered civil aircraft, which document is required by regulation to be available in the aircraft?
A) An Owner's Manual.
B) A manufacturer's Operations Manual.
C) A current, approved Airplane Flight Manual.

5324
Ice pellets encountered during flight normally are evidence that
A) there are thunderstorms in the area.
B) a warm front has passed.
C) a warm front is about to pass.

5358
During an approach, the most important and most easily recognized means of being alerted to possible wind shear is monitoring the
A) amount of trim required to relieve control pressures.
B) power and vertical velocity required to remain on the proper glidepath.
C) heading changes necessary to remain on the runway centerline.

5752
Which procedure should you follow to avoid wake turbulence if a large jet crosses your course from left to right approximately 1 mile ahead and at your altitude?
A) Make sure you are slightly below the path of the jet and perpendicular to the course.
B) Make sure you are slightly above the path of the jet.
C) Slow your airspeed to VA and maintain altitude and course.

5350
Fog produced by frontal activity is a result of saturation due to
A) nocturnal cooling.
C) evaporation of precipitation.

5115
After an ATC clearance has been obtained, a pilot may not deviate from that clearance, unless the pilot
A) receives an amended clearance or has an emergency.
B) requests an amended clearance.
C) is operating VFR on top.

5417
What type of Inflight Weather Advisories provides an en route pilot with information regarding the possibility of moderate icing, moderate turbulence, winds of 30 knots or more at the surface and extensive mountain obscurement?
A) Convective SIGMETs and SIGMETs.
B) AIRMETs and Center Weather Advisories (CWA).
C) Severe Weather Forecast Alerts (AWW) and SIGMETs.

5739
Frost covering the upper surface of an airplane wing usually will cause
A) the airplane to stall at an angle of attack that is lower than normal.
B) drag factors so large that sufficient speed cannot be obtained for takeoff.
C) the airplane to stall at an angle of attack that is higher than normal.

5333
Which would decrease the stability of an air mass?
A) Warming from below.
B) Cooling from below.
C) Decrease in water vapor.

5553
When the CDI needle is centered during an airborne VOR check, the omnibearing selector should read
A) within 6° of the selected radial.
B) 0° TO, only if you are due south of the VOR.
C) within 4° of the selected radial.

5067
Approved flotation gear, readily available to each occupant, is required on each aircraft if it is being flown for hire over water,
A) in amphibious aircraft beyond 50 NM from shore.
B) beyond power-off gliding distance from shore.
C) more than 50 statute miles from shore.

5105
If an ATC transponder installed in an aircraft has not been tested, inspected, and found to comply with regulations within a specified period, what is the limitation on its use?
A) It may be used when in Class G airspace.
B) Its use is not permitted.
C) It may be used for VFR flight only.

5045
Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in condition for safe flight?
A) The pilot in command.
B) The owner or operator.
C) A certificated aircraft mechanic.

5450
One of the most dangerous features of mountain waves is the turbulent areas in and
A) above rotor clouds.
B) below rotor clouds.
C) below lenticular clouds.

5375
Which is true regarding the use of airborne weather-avoidance radar for the recognition of certain weather conditions?
A) The radarscope provides no assurance of avoiding instrument weather conditions.
B) The avoidance of hail is assured when flying between and just clear of the most intense echoes.
C) The clear area between intense echoes indicates that visual sighting of storms can be maintained when flying between the echoes.

5356
Convective currents are most active on warm summer afternoons when winds are
A) moderate.
B) light.
C) strong.

5070
The maximum cumulative time that an emergency locator transmitter may be operated before the rechargeable battery must be recharged is
A) 30 minutes.
B) 45 minutes.
C) 60 minutes.

5076
A pilot flying a single-engine airplane observes a multiengine airplane approaching from the left. Which pilot should give way?
A) Each pilot should alter course to the right.
B) The pilot of the single-engine airplane should give way; the other airplane is to the left.
C) The pilot of the multiengine airplane should give way; the single-engine airplane is to its right.

5340
The formation of either predominantly stratiform or predominantly cumuliform clouds is dependent upon the
A) stability of the air being lifted.
B) temperature of the air being lifted.
C) source of lift.

5076
An airplane is overtaking a helicopter. Which aircraft has the right-of-way?
A) Helicopter; the pilot should expect to be passed on the left.
B) Airplane; the airplane pilot should alter course to the left to pass.
C) Helicopter; the pilot should expect to be passed on the right.

5056
Portable electronic devices which may cause interference with the navigation or communication system may not be operated on U.S.-registered civil aircraft being operated
A) under IFR.
B) along Federal airways.
C) in passenger carrying operations.

5021
A second-class medical certificate issued to a commercial pilot on April 10, this year, permits the pilot to exercise which of the following privileges?
A) Commercial pilot privileges through April 30, next year.
B) Commercial pilot privileges through April 10, 2 years later.
C) Private pilot privileges through, but not after, March 31, next year.

5761
Hypoxia is the result of which of these conditions?
A) Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain.
B) Excessive carbon dioxide in the bloodstream.
C) Excessive oxygen in the bloodstream.

5659
(Refer to figure 51.) While clearing an active runway, you are most likely clear of the ILS critical area when you pass which symbol?
A) Top red.
B) Bottom yellow.
C) Middle yellow.

5305
What are the standard temperature and pressure values for sea level?
A) 59 °F and 1013.2 inches Hg.
B) 15 °C and 29.92 inches Hg.
C) 15 °C and 29.92 Mb.

5078
Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, the maximum indicated airspeed permitted when at or below 2,500 feet AGL within 4 NM of the primary airport within Class C or D airspace is
A) 200 knots.
B) 180 knots.
C) 230 knots.

5099
An aircraft carrying passengers for hire has been on a schedule of inspection every 100 hours of time in service. Under which condition, if any, may that aircraft be operated beyond 100 hours without a new inspection?
A) The aircraft may be dispatched for a flight of any duration as long as 100 hours has not been exceeded at the time it departs.
B) The aircraft may be flown for any flight as long as the time in service has not exceeded 110 hours.
C) The 100-hour limitation may be exceeded by not more than 10 hours if necessary to reach a place at which the inspection can be done.

5121
When weather information indicates that abnormally high barometric pressure exists, or will be above _____ inches of mercury, flight operations will not be authorized contrary to the requirements published in NOTAMs.
A) 32.00
B) 31.00
C) 30.50

5229
A pilot convicted for the violation of any Federal or State statute relating to the process, manufacture, transportation, distribution, or sale of narcotic drugs is grounds for
A) notification of this conviction to the FAA Civil Aeromedical Institute (CAMI) within 60 days after the conviction.
B) suspension or revocation of any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under 14 CFR part 61.
C) a written report to be filed with the FAA Civil Aviation Security Division (AMC-700) not later than 60 days after the conviction.

5096
A standard airworthiness certificate remains in effect as long as the aircraft receives
A) required maintenance and inspections.
B) an annual inspection and a 100-hour inspection prior to their expiration dates.
C) an annual inspection.

5377
Advection fog has drifted over a coastal airport during the day. What may tend to dissipate or lift this fog into low stratus clouds?
A) Nighttime cooling.
B) Wind 15 knots or stronger.

5089
Who has the final authority to accept or decline any 'land and hold short' (LAHSO) clearance?
A) Airplane owner/operator.
B) ATC tower controller.
C) Pilot-in-command.

5380
With respect to advection fog, which statement is true?
A) It can appear suddenly during day or night, and it is more persistent than radiation fog.
B) It forms almost exclusively at night or near daybreak.
C) It is slow to develop, and dissipates quite rapidly.

5098
Which is correct concerning preventive maintenance, when accomplished by a pilot?
A) A record of preventive maintenance must be entered in the maintenance records.
B) Records of preventive maintenance must be entered in the FAA-approved flight
C) A record of preventive maintenance is not required.

5004
A pilot convicted of operating an aircraft as a crewmember under the influence of alcohol, or using drugs that affect the person`s faculties, is grounds for a
A) written notification to the FAA Civil Aeromedical Institute (CAMI) within 60 days after the conviction.
B) written report to be filed with the FAA Civil Aviation Security Division (AMC-700) not later than 60 days after the conviction.
C) denial of an application for an FAA certificate, rating, or authorization issued under 14 CFR part 61.

5075
Two aircraft of the same category are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing. The right-of-way belongs to the aircraft
A) at the lower altitude, but the pilot shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to overtake the other aircraft.
B) that is more maneuverable, and that aircraft may, with caution, move in front of or overtake the other aircraft.
C) at the higher altitude.

5102
Aircraft maintenance records must include the current status of the
A) life-limited parts of only the engine and airframe.
B) life-limited parts of each airframe, engine, propeller, rotor, and appliance.
C) applicable airworthiness certificate.

5082
Which is true regarding pilot certification requirements for operations in Class B airspace?
A) The pilot in command must hold at least a private pilot certificate.
B) The pilot in command must hold at least a private pilot certificate with an instrument rating.
C) Solo student pilot operations are not authorized.

5322
Virga is best described as
A) turbulent areas beneath cumulonimbus clouds.
B) wall cloud torrents trailing beneath cumulonimbus clouds which dissipate before reaching the ground.
C) streamers of precipitation trailing beneath clouds which evaporates before reaching the ground.

5110
Operating regulations for U.S.-registered civil airplanes require that during movement on the surface, takeoffs, and landings, a seat belt and shoulder harness (if installed) must be properly secured about each
A) flight crewmember only.
B) flight and cabin crewmembers.
C) person on board.

5310
What causes wind?
A) The Earth's rotation.
B) Pressure differences.
C) Air mass modification.

5312
Why does the wind have a tendency to flow parallel to the isobars above the friction level?
A) Friction of the air with the Earth deflects the air perpendicular to the pressure gradient.
B) Coriolis force tends to counterbalance the horizontal pressure gradient.
C) Coriolis force acts perpendicular to a line connecting the highs and lows.

5371
What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm?
A) Continuous updraft.
B) Roll cloud.
C) Beginning of rain at the surface.

5335
What type weather can one expect from moist, unstable air, and very warm surface temperatures?
A) Continuous heavy precipitation.
B) Fog and low stratus clouds.
C) Strong updrafts and cumulonimbus clouds.

5347
Which is true regarding a cold front occlusion? The air ahead of the warm front
A) is warmer than the air behind the overtaking cold front.
B) has the same temperature as the air behind the overtaking cold front.
C) is colder than the air behind the overtaking cold front.

5050
Before beginning any flight under IFR, the pilot in command must become familiar with all available information concerning that flight. In addition, the pilot must
A) be familiar with the runway lengths at airports of intended use, weather reports, fuel requirements, and alternatives available, if the planned flight cannot be completed.
B) be familiar with all instrument approaches at the destination airport.
C) list an alternate airport on the flight plan, and confirm adequate takeoff and landing performance at the destination airport.

5434
What weather phenomenon is implied within an area enclosed by small scalloped lines on a U.S. High-Level Significant Weather Prognostic Chart?
A) Cumuliform or standing lenticular clouds, moderate to severe turbulence, and icing.
B) Cirriform clouds, light to moderate turbulence, and icing.
C) Cumulonimbus clouds, icing, and moderate or greater turbulence.

5119
Which is true regarding flight operations to or from a satellite airport, without an operating control tower, within the Class C airspace area?
A) Prior to entering that airspace, a pilot must establish and maintain communication with the ATC serving facility.
B) Prior to takeoff, a pilot must establish communication with the ATC controlling facility.
C) Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder.