PPL Prac Questions 1.

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PPL Prac Questions 1.

Post  Admin on Thu Dec 03, 2009 3:45 am

What is indicated when a current CONVECTIVE SIGMET forecasts thunderstorms?
A) Moderate or severe turbulence.
B) Thunderstorms obscured by massive cloud layers.
C) Moderate thunderstorms covering 30 percent of the area.

Which technique should a pilot use to scan for traffic to the right and left during straight-and-level flight?
A) Continuous sweeping of the windshield from right to left.
B) Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals.
C) Concentrate on relative movement detected in the peripheral vision area.

What are the processes by which moisture is added to unsaturated air?
A) Supersaturation and evaporation.
B) Evaporation and sublimation.
C) Heating and condensation.

Detonation may occur at high-power settings when
A) the fuel mixture ignites instantaneously instead of burning progressively and evenly.
B) an excessively rich fuel mixture causes an explosive gain in power.
C) the fuel mixture is ignited too early by hot carbon deposits in the cylinder.

One weather phenomenon which will always occur when flying across a front is a change in the
A) wind direction.
B) type of precipitation.
C) stability of the air mass.

In the Northern Hemisphere, if an aircraft is accelerated or decelerated, the magnetic compass will normally indicate
A) correctly when on a north or south heading.
B) a turn momentarily.
C) a turn toward the south.

During a night flight, you observe a steady red light and a flashing red light ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?
A) The other aircraft is crossing to the left.
B) The other aircraft is approaching head-on.
C) The other aircraft is crossing to the right.

Which V-speed represents maximum flap extended speed?

(Refer to figure 51.) The segmented circle indicates that the airport traffic is
A) left-hand for Runway 36 and right-hand for Runway 18.
B) left-hand for Runway 18 and right-hand for Runway 36.
C) right-hand for Runway 9 and left-hand for Runway 27.

The correct method of stating 4,500 feet MSL to ATC is

When should pilots decline a land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance?
A) When it will compromise safety.
B) Pilots can not decline clearance.
C) Only when the tower operator concurs.

Which preflight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to each flight?
A) Check the aircraft logbooks for appropriate entries.
B) Become familiar with all available information concerning the flight.
C) Review wake turbulence avoidance procedures.

If a flight is made from an area of low pressure into an area of high pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate
A) the actual altitude above sea level.
B) lower than the actual altitude above sea level.
C) higher than the actual altitude above sea level.

The pitot system provides impact pressure for which instrument?
A) Altimeter.
B) Vertical-speed indicator.
C) Airspeed indicator.

The boundary between two different air masses is referred to as a
A) frontogenesis.
B) front.
C) frontolysis.

(Refer to figure 21, area 5.) The CAUTION box denotes what hazard to aircraft?
A) Unmarked balloon on cable to 3,000 feet AGL.
B) Unmarked balloon on cable to 3,000 feet MSL.
C) Unmarked blimp hangers at 300 feet MSL.

To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, the pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings in an aircraft of the same category, class, and if a type rating is required, of the same type, within the preceding
A) 12 calendar months.
B) 90 days.
C) 24 calendar months.

How many satellites make up the Global Positioning System (GPS)?
A) 24.
B) 22.
C) 25.

(Refer to figure 9, area A.) How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tricycle-gear equipped airplane into a left quartering headwind?
A) Left aileron up, elevator neutral.
B) Left aileron up, elevator down.
C) Left aileron down, elevator neutral.

(Refer to figure 4.) What is the full flap operating range for the airplane?
A) 65 to 165 MPH.
B) 60 to 208 MPH.
C) 60 to 100 MPH.

The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during daylight hours is to use
A) peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing offcenter viewing.
B) a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10-degree sector.
C) regularly spaced concentration on the 3-, 9-, and 12-o'clock positions.

During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility for VFR flight at night is
A) 1 mile.
B) 3 miles.
C) 5 miles.

(Refer to figure 6.) To receive accurate indications during flight from a heading indicator, the instrument must be
A) set prior to flight on a known heading.
B) calibrated on a compass rose at regular intervals.
C) periodically realigned with the magnetic compass as the gyro precesses.

From which primary source should information be obtained regarding expected weather at the estimated time of arrival if your destination has no Terminal Forecast?
A) Weather Depiction Chart.
B) Area Forecast.
C) Low-Level Prognostic Chart.

If a recreational or private pilot had a flight review on August 8, this year, when is the next flight review required?
A) August 31, 1 year later.
B) August 31, 2 years later.
C) August 8, next year.

(Refer to figure 27, area 2.) What is the recommended communication procedure when inbound to land at Cooperstown Airport?
A) Broadcast intentions when 10 miles out on the CTAF/MULTICOM frequency, 122.9 MHz.
B) Circle the airport in a left turn prior to entering traffic.
C) Contact UNICOM when 10 miles out on 122.8 MHz.

The wind at 5,000 feet AGL is southwesterly while the surface wind is southerly. This difference in direction is primarily due to
A) stronger Coriolis force at the surface.
B) stronger pressure gradient at higher altitudes.
C) friction between the wind and the surface.

(Refer to figures 33 and 34.) What is the maximum amount of baggage that can be carried when the airplane is loaded as follows?
Front seat occupants 387 lb
Rear seat occupants 293 lb
Fuel 35 gal

A) 220 pounds.
B) 63 pounds.
C) 45 pounds.

In what flight condition must an aircraft be placed in order to spin?
A) In a steep diving spiral.
B) Stalled.
C) Partially stalled with one wing low.

The responsibility for ensuring that maintenance personnel make the appropriate entries in the aircraft maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service lies with the
A) mechanic who performed the work.
B) pilot in command.
C) owner or operator.

In which environment is aircraft structural ice most likely to have the highest accumulation rate?
A) Cumulus clouds with below freezing temperatures.
B) Freezing drizzle.
C) Freezing rain.

What service should a pilot normally expect from an En Route Flight Advisory Service (EFAS) station?
A) Actual weather information and thunderstorm activity along the route.
B) Preferential routing and radar vectoring to circumnavigate severe weather.
C) Severe weather information, changes to flight plans, and receipt of routine position reports.

Susceptibility to carbon monoxide poisoning increases as
A) altitude decreases.
B) air pressure increases.
C) altitude increases.

When departing behind a heavy aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by maneuvering the aircraft
A) above and upwind from the heavy aircraft.
B) below and downwind from the heavy aircraft.
C) below and upwind from the heavy aircraft.

(Refer to figure 1.) The acute angle A is the angle of
A) attack.
B) incidence.
C) dihedral.

FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airmen are issued under which subject number?
A) 70.
B) 60.
C) 90.

No person may operate an aircraft in acrobatic flight when
A) less than 2,500 feet AGL.
B) flight visibility is less than 5 miles.
C) over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement.

A seaplane and a motorboat are on crossing courses. If the motorboat is to the left of the seaplane, which has the right-of-way?
A) Both should alter course to the right.
B) The seaplane.
C) The motorboat.

One in-flight condition necessary for structural icing to form is
A) visible moisture.
B) small temperature/dewpoint spread.
C) stratiform clouds.

(Refer to figure 38.) Determine the total distance required to land.
OAT 32 °F
Pressure altitude 8,000 ft
Weight 2,600 lb
Headwind component 20 kts
Obstacle 50 ft

A) 1,750 feet.
B) 1,400 feet.
C) 850 feet.

What should an owner or operator know about Airworthiness Directives (AD's)?
A) They are voluntary.
B) For Informational purposes only.
C) They are mandatory.

(Refer to figure 4.) Which color identifies the never-exceed speed?
A) Upper limit of the white arc.
B) Lower limit of the yellow arc.
C) The red radial line.

Which factor would tend to increase the density altitude at a given airport?
A) An increase in ambient temperature.
B) An increase in barometric pressure.
C) A decrease in relative humidity.

(Refer to figure 15.) What is the forecast wind for KMEM from 1600Z until the end of the forecast?
A) Variable in direction at 6 knots.
B) Variable in direction at 4 knots.
C) No significant wind.

If the pitot tube and outside static vents become clogged, which instruments would be affected?
A) The altimeter, attitude indicator, and turn-and-slip indicator.
B) The altimeter, airspeed indicator, and turn-and-slip indicator.
C) The altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator.

What cloud types would indicate convective turbulence?
A) Cirrus clouds.
B) Towering cumulus clouds.
C) Nimbostratus clouds.

(Refer to figure 7.) How should a pilot determine the direction of bank from an attitude indicator such as the one illustrated?
A) By the direction of deflection of the horizon bar (B).
B) By the relationship of the miniature airplane (C) to the deflected horizon bar (B).
C) By the direction of deflection of the banking scale (A).

Steady precipitation preceding a front is an indication of
A) cumuliform clouds with little or no turbulence.
B) stratiform clouds with moderate turbulence.
C) stratiform clouds with little or no turbulence.

(Refer to figure 49.) Area C on the airport depicted is classified as a
A) multiple heliport.
B) stabilized area.
C) closed runway.

When taxiing with strong quartering tailwinds, which aileron positions should be used?
A) Ailerons neutral.
B) Aileron down on the side from which the wind is blowing.
C) Aileron down on the downwind side.

What clouds have the greatest turbulence?
A) Towering cumulus.
B) Cumulonimbus.
C) Nimbostratus.

Filling the fuel tanks after the last flight of the day is considered a good operating procedure because this will
A) force any existing water to the top of the tank away from the fuel lines to the engine.
B) prevent moisture condensation by eliminating airspace in the tanks.
C) prevent expansion of the fuel by eliminating airspace in the tanks.

The correct method of stating 10,500 feet MSL to ATC is

When telephoning a weather briefing facility for preflight weather information, pilots should state
A) the aircraft identification or the pilot's name.
B) true airspeed.
C) fuel on board.

What information is contained in a CONVECTIVE SIGMET?
A) Severe icing, severe turbulence, or widespread dust storms lowering visibility to less than 3 miles.
B) Surface winds greater than 40 knots or thunderstorms equal to or greater than video integrator processor (VIP) level 4.
C) Tornadoes, embedded thunderstorms, and hail 3/4 inch or greater in diameter.

(Refer to figure 14.) The base and tops of the overcast layer reported by a pilot are
A) 5,500 feet AGL and 7,200 feet MSL.
B) 7,200 feet MSL and 8,900 feet MSL.
C) 1,800 feet MSL and 5,500 feet MSL.

Which weather conditions should be expected beneath a low-level temperature inversion layer when the relative humidity is high?
A) Smooth air, poor visibility, fog, haze, or low clouds.
B) Turbulent air, poor visibility, fog, low stratus type clouds, and showery precipitation.
C) Light wind shear, poor visibility, haze, and light rain.

(Refer to figure 23.) What is the estimated time en route from Sandpoint Airport (area 1) to St. Maries Airport (area 4)? The wind is from 215° at 25 knots, and the true airspeed is 125 knots.
A) 30 minutes.
B) 34 minutes.
C) 38 minutes.

(Refer to figure 14.) The wind and temperature at 12,000 feet MSL as reported by a pilot are
A) 080° at 21 knots and -7 °C.
B) 090° at 21 knots and -9 °C.
C) 090° at 21 MPH and -9 °F.

Clouds, fog, or dew will always form when
A) water vapor condenses.
B) relative humidity reaches 100 percent.
C) water vapor is present.

(Refer to figure 27, area 2.) What hazards to aircraft may exist in areas such as Devils Lake East MOA?
A) Military training activities that necessitate acrobatic or abrupt flight maneuvers.
B) Unusual, often invisible, hazards to aircraft such as artillery firing, aerial gunnery, or guided missiles.
C) High volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity.

If instructed by ground control to taxi to Runway 9, the pilot may proceed
A) via taxiways and across runways to, but not onto, Runway 9.
B) via taxiways and across runways to Runway 9, where an immediate takeoff may be made.
C) to the next intersecting runway where further clearance is required.

Flight crewmembers are required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened during
A) all flight conditions.
B) takeoffs and landings.
C) flight in turbulent air.

(Refer to figure 4.) What is the maximum flaps-extended speed?
A) 65 MPH.
B) 100 MPH.
C) 165 MPH.

Which aircraft has the right-of-way over all other air traffic?
A) An aircraft on final approach to land.
B) An aircraft in distress.
C) A balloon.

Which cruising altitude is appropriate for a VFR flight on a magnetic course of 135°?
A) Odd thousandths plus 500 feet.
B) Even thousandths.
C) Even thousandths plus 500 feet.

A stable air mass is most likely to have which characteristic?
A) Showery precipitation.
B) Poor surface visibility.
C) Turbulent air.

What is the minimum visibility for a pilot to receive a land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance?
A) 3 statute miles.
B) 1 statute mile.
C) 3 nautical miles

(Refer to figure 18.) According to the Weather Depiction Chart, the weather for a flight from southern Michigan to north Indiana is ceilings
A) less than 1,000 feet and/or visibility less than 3 miles.
B) 1,000 to 3,000 feet and/or visibility 3 to 5 miles.
C) greater than 3,000 feet and visibility greater than 5 miles.

(Refer to figure 29, illustration 1.) The VOR receiver has the indications shown. What is the aircraft's position relative to the station?
A) East.
B) South.
C) North.

(Refer to figure 15.) What is the valid period for the TAF for KMEM?
A) 1800Z to 1800Z.
B) 1200Z to 1800Z.
C) 1200Z to 1200Z.

The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during nighttime hours is to use
A) a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 30-degree sector.
B) regularly spaced concentration on the 3-, 9-, and 12-o'clock positions.
C) peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing offcenter viewing.

(Refer to figure 4.) Which color identifies the power-off stalling speed in a specified configuration?
A) Upper limit of the white arc.
B) Lower limit of the green arc.
C) Upper limit of the green arc.

(LB) (IN) (LB-IN)
Empty weight 1,495.0 101.4 151,593.0
Pilot and passengers 380.0 64.0 -
Fuel (30 gal usable no reserve) - 96.0 -
The CG is located how far aft of datum?

A) CG 119.8.
B) CG 92.44.
C) CG 94.01.

What is the antidote when a pilot has a hazardous attitude, such as "Macho"?
A) Taking chances is foolish.
B) Nothing will happen.
C) I can do it.

(Refer to figure 18.) The marginal weather in central Kentucky is due to low
A) ceiling.
B) visibility.
C) ceiling and visibility.

Airport taxiway edge lights are identified at night by
A) blue omnidirectional lights.
B) white directional lights.
C) alternate red and green lights.

If a pilot changes the altimeter setting from 30.11 to 29.96, what is the approximate change in indication?
A) Altimeter will indicate 150 feet higher.
B) Altimeter will indicate 150 feet lower.
C) Altimeter will indicate .15 inches Hg higher.

(Refer to figure 18.) What weather phenomenon is causing IFR conditions in central Oklahoma?
A) Low visibility only.
B) Low ceilings and visibility.
C) Heavy rain showers.

To determine the freezing level and areas of probable icing aloft, the pilot should refer to the
A) Inflight Aviation Weather Advisories.
B) Area Forecast.
C) Weather Depiction Chart.

The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an accident is required to file an accident report within how many days?
A) 10.
B) 7.
C) 5.

If it is necessary to set the altimeter from 29.15 to 29.85, what change occurs?
A) 70-foot increase in indicated altitude.
B) 700-foot increase in indicated altitude.
C) 70-foot increase in density altitude.

The most important rule to remember in the event of a power failure after becoming airborne is to
A) quickly check the fuel supply for possible fuel exhaustion.
B) determine the wind direction to plan for the forced landing.
C) immediately establish the proper gliding attitude and airspeed.

(Refer to figure 8.) Determine the pressure altitude with an indicated altitude of 1,380 feet MSL with an altimeter setting of 28.22 at standard temperature.
A) 3,010 feet MSL.
B) 2,991 feet MSL.
C) 2,913 feet MSL.

An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying on a heading of 090°:
Where should the pilot look for this traffic?
A) South.
B) East.
C) West.

If an alteration or repair substantially affects an aircraft's operation in flight, that aircraft must be test flown by an appropriately-rated pilot and approved for return to service prior to being operated
A) with passengers aboard.
B) by any private pilot.
C) for compensation or hire.

If the grade of fuel used in an aircraft engine is lower than specified for the engine, it will most likely cause
A) a mixture of fuel and air that is not uniform in all cylinders.
B) detonation.
C) lower cylinder head temperatures.

In what flight condition is torque effect the greatest in a single-engine airplane?
A) High airspeed, high power, high angle of attack.
B) Low airspeed, low power, low angle of attack.
C) Low airspeed, high power, high angle of attack.

An aircraft's annual inspection was performed on July 12, this year. The next annual inspection will be due no later than
A) July 1, next year.
B) July 31, next year.
C) July 13, next year.

Which is normally prohibited when operating a restricted category civil aircraft?
A) Flight within Class D airspace.
B) Flight under instrument flight rules.
C) Flight over a densely populated area.

(Refer to figure 53.) Which type radar service is provided to VFR aircraft at Lincoln Municipal?
A) Sequencing to the primary Class C airport, traffic advisories, conflict resolution, and safety alerts.
B) Sequencing to the primary Class C airport and conflict resolution so that radar targets do not touch, or 1,000 feet vertical separation.
C) Sequencing to the primary Class C airport and standard separation.

Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed?
A) Aircraft refueling other aircraft.
B) Glider.
C) Airship.

The definition of nighttime is
A) sunset to sunrise.
B) the time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight.
C) 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise.

How should an aircraft preflight inspection be accomplished for the first flight of the day?
A) Thorough and systematic means recommended by the manufacturer.
B) Any sequence as determined by the pilot-in-command.
C) Quick walk around with a check of gas and oil.

(Refer to figure 4.) What is the caution range of the airplane?
A) 0 to 60 MPH.
B) 100 to 165 MPH.
C) 165 to 208 MPH.

With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a class of aircraft?
A) Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, balloon.
B) Normal, utility, acrobatic, limited.
C) Transport, restricted, provisional.

A weather briefing that is provided when the information requested is 6 or more hours in advance of the proposed departure time is
A) an outlook briefing.
B) a prognostic briefing.
C) a forecast briefing.

What should be the first action after starting an aircraft engine?
A) Test each brake and the parking brake.
B) Place the magneto or ignition switch momentarily in the OFF position to check for proper grounding.
C) Adjust for proper RPM and check for desired indications on the engine gauges.

(Refer to figure 48.) While on final approach to a runway equipped with a standard 2-bar VASI, the lights appear as shown by illustration D. This means that the aircraft is
A) below the glide slope.
B) above the glide slope.
C) on the glide slope.

What information is provided by the Radar Summary Chart that is not shown on other weather charts?
A) Lines and cells of hazardous thunderstorms.
B) Ceilings and precipitation between reporting stations.
C) Types of clouds between reporting stations.

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