CPL Prac Questions Sec 2.

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CPL Prac Questions Sec 2.

Post  Admin on Thu Dec 03, 2009 3:56 am

5108
To serve as second in command of an airplane that is certificated for more than one pilot crewmember, and operated under part 91, a person must
A) within the last 12 months become familiar with the required information, and perform and log pilot time in the type of airplane for which privileges are requested.
B) receive and log flight training from an authorized flight instructor in the type of airplane for which privileges are requested.
C) hold at least a commercial pilot certificate with an airplane category rating.

5760
Which would most likely result in hyperventilation?
A) Insufficient carbon dioxide.
B) Insufficient oxygen.
C) Excessive carbon monoxide.

5435
The U.S. High-Level Significant Weather Prognostic Chart forecasts significant weather for what airspace?
A) 24,000 feet to 63,000 feet.
B) 24,000 feet to 45,000 feet.
C) 18,000 feet to 45,000 feet.

5067
Approved flotation gear, readily available to each occupant, is required on each airplane if it is being flown for hire over water,
A) in amphibious aircraft beyond 50 NM from shore.
B) more than 50 statute miles from shore.
C) beyond power-off gliding distance from shore.

5348
Which are characteristics of a cold air mass moving over a warm surface?
A) Cumuliform clouds, turbulence, and good visibility.
B) Cumuliform clouds, turbulence, and poor visibility.
C) Stratiform clouds, smooth air, and poor visibility.

5107
To serve as pilot in command of an airplane that is certified for more than one pilot crewmember, and operated under part 91, a person must
A) receive and log ground and flight training from an authorized flight instructor.
B) complete a flight review within the preceding 24 calendar months.
C) complete a pilot-in-command proficiency check within the preceding 12 calendar months in an airplane that is type certificated for more than one pilot.

5369
What visible signs indicate extreme turbulence in thunderstorms?
A) Cumulonimbus clouds, very frequent lightning, and roll clouds.
B) Base of the clouds near the surface, heavy rain, and hail.
C) Low ceiling and visibility, hail, and precipitation static.

5110
Operating regulations for U.S.-registered civil airplanes require that during movement on the surface, takeoffs, and landings, a seat belt and shoulder harness (if installed) must be properly secured about each
A) person on board.
B) flight crewmember only.
C) flight and cabin crewmembers.

5413
Terminal Aerodrome Forecasts (TAF) are issued how many times a day and cover what period of time?
A) Six times daily and are usually valid for a 24 hour period including a 6-hour categorical outlook.
B) Six times daily and are usually valid for a 24 hour period including a 4-hour categorical outlook.
C) Four times daily and are usually valid for a 24 hour period.

5105
If an ATC transponder installed in an aircraft has not been tested, inspected, and found to comply with regulations within a specified period, what is the limitation on its use?
A) It may be used for VFR flight only.
B) It may be used when in Class G airspace.
C) Its use is not permitted.

5090
To operate an airplane under SPECIAL VFR (SVFR) within Class D airspace at night, which is required?
A) The pilot must hold an instrument rating, but the airplane need not be equipped for instrument flight, as long as the weather will remain at or above SVFR minimums.
B) The Class D airspace must be specifically designated as a night SVFR area.
C) The pilot must hold an instrument rating, and the airplane must be equipped for instrument flight.

5375
Which is true regarding the use of airborne weather-avoidance radar for the recognition of certain weather conditions?
A) The clear area between intense echoes indicates that visual sighting of storms can be maintained when flying between the echoes.
B) The avoidance of hail is assured when flying between and just clear of the most intense echoes.
C) The radarscope provides no assurance of avoiding instrument weather conditions.

5063
In accordance with 14 CFR part 91, supplemental oxygen must be used by the required minimum flightcrew for that time exceeding 30 minutes while at cabin pressure altitudes of
A) 10,500 feet MSL up to and including 12,500 feet MSL.
B) 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL.
C) 12,000 feet MSL up to and including 18,000 feet MSL.

5094
Assuring compliance with an Airworthiness Directive is the responsibility of the
A) owner or operator of that aircraft.
B) pilot in command of that aircraft.
C) pilot in command and the FAA certificated mechanic assigned to that aircraft.

5101
An ATC transponder is not to be used unless it has been tested, inspected, and found to comply with regulations within the preceding
A) 24 calendar months.
B) 30 days.
C) 12 calendar months.

5359
During departure, under conditions of suspected low-level wind shear, a sudden decrease in headwind will cause
A) a loss in airspeed equal to the decrease in wind velocity.
B) no change in airspeed, but groundspeed will decrease.
C) a gain in airspeed equal to the decrease in wind velocity.

5659
(Refer to figure 51.) When taxiing up to an active runway, you are likely to be clear of the ILS critical area when short of which symbol?
A) Middle yellow.
B) Top red.
C) Bottom yellow.

5376
A situation most conducive to the formation of advection fog is
A) an air mass moving inland from the coastline during the winter.
B) a light breeze moving colder air over a water surface.
C) a warm, moist air mass settling over a cool surface under no-wind conditions.

5374
Which in-flight hazard is most commonly associated with warm fronts?
A) Precipitation-induced fog.
B) Advection fog.
C) Radiation fog.

5552
When using VOT to make a VOR receiver check, the CDI should be centered and the OBS should indicate that the aircraft is on the
A) 090 radial.
B) 180 radial.
C) 360 radial.

5341
Which combination of weather-producing variables would likely result in cumuliform-type clouds, good visibility, and showery rain?
A) Unstable, moist air and orographic lifting.
B) Stable, moist air and orographic lifting.
C) Unstable, moist air and no lifting mechanism.

5095
After an annual inspection has been completed and the aircraft has been returned to service, an appropriate notation should be made
A) in the FAA-approved flight manual.
B) on the airworthiness certificate.
C) in the aircraft maintenance records.

5753
To avoid possible wake turbulence from a large jet aircraft that has just landed prior to your takeoff, at which point on the runway should you plan to become airborne?
A) Approximately 500 feet prior to the point where the jet touched down.
B) At the point where the jet touched down, or just prior to this point.
C) Past the point where the jet touched down.

5082
Which is true regarding pilot certification requirements for operations in Class B airspace?
A) The pilot in command must hold at least a private pilot certificate with an instrument rating.
B) The pilot in command must hold at least a private pilot certificate.
C) Solo student pilot operations are not authorized.

5083
The minimum flight visibility for VFR flight increases to 5 statute miles beginning at an altitude of
A) 10,000 feet MSL regardless of height above ground.
B) 14,500 feet MSL.
C) 10,000 feet MSL if above 1,200 feet AGL.

5096
A standard airworthiness certificate remains in effect as long as the aircraft receives
A) an annual inspection and a 100-hour inspection prior to their expiration dates.
B) an annual inspection.
C) required maintenance and inspections.

5354
If a temperature inversion is encountered immediately after takeoff or during an approach to a landing, a potential hazard exists due to
A) wind shear.
B) strong surface winds.
C) strong convective currents.

5328
What is the approximate base of the cumulus clouds if the temperature at 2,000 feet MSL is 10 °C. and the dewpoint is 1 °C?
A) 4,000 feet MSL.
B) 3,000 feet MSL.
C) 6,000 feet MSL.

5103
Which is true relating to Airworthiness Directives (AD's) ?
A) Noncompliance with AD's renders an aircraft unairworthy.
B) AD's are advisory in nature and are, generally, not addressed immediately.
C) Compliance with AD's is the responsibility of maintenance personnel.

5045
Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in condition for safe flight?
A) The pilot in command.
B) The owner or operator.
C) A certificated aircraft mechanic.

5347
Which is true regarding a cold front occlusion? The air ahead of the warm front
A) is colder than the air behind the overtaking cold front.
B) has the same temperature as the air behind the overtaking cold front.
C) is warmer than the air behind the overtaking cold front.

5406
What significant cloud coverage is reported by this pilot report?
KMOB
UA/OV 15NW MOB 1340Z/SK OVC 025/045 OVC 090
A) The base of the second overcast layer is 2,500 feet; top of second overcast layer is 7,500 feet; base of third layer is 9,000 feet.
B) The top of the lower overcast is 2,500 feet; base and top of second overcast layer is 4,500 and 9,000 feet, respectively.
C) Three (3) separate overcast layers exist with bases at 250, 7,500 and 9,000 feet.

5310
What causes wind?
A) The Earth's rotation.
B) Air mass modification.
C) Pressure differences.

5658
(Refer to figure 51.) The red symbol at the top would most likely be found
A) upon exiting all runways prior to calling ground control.
B) at an intersection where a roadway may be mistaken as a taxiway.
C) near the approach end of ILS runways.

5088
When operating an airplane for the purpose of takeoff or landing within Class D airspace under special VFR, what minimum distance from clouds and what visibility are required?
A) 500 feet beneath clouds, and the ground visibility must be at least 1 SM.
B) Remain clear of clouds, and the ground visibility must be at least 1 SM.
C) Remain clear of clouds, and the flight visibility must be at least 1 NM.

5024
To act as pilot in command of an airplane that is equipped with retractable landing gear, flaps, and controllable-pitch propeller, a person is required to
A) receive and log ground and flight training in such an airplane, and obtain a logbook endorsement certifying proficiency.
B) hold a multiengine airplane class rating.
C) make at least six takeoffs and landings in such an airplane within the preceding 6 months.

5120
Which is true regarding flight operations in Class A airspace?
A) May conduct operations under visual flight rules.
B) Aircraft must be equipped with approved distance measuring equipment (DME).
C) Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment.

5756
Which is true with respect to vortex circulation?
A) When vortex circulation sinks into ground effect, it tends to dissipate rapidly and offer little danger.
B) The vortex strength is greatest when the generating aircraft is heavy, clean, and slow.
C) Helicopters generate downwash turbulence only, not vortex circulation.

5106
To act as pilot-in-command of an airplane with more than 200 horsepower, a person is required to
A) receive and log ground and flight training from an authorized instructor in such an airplane.
B) obtain an endorsement from a qualified pilot stating that the person is proficient to operate such an airplane.
C) receive and log ground and flight training from a qualified pilot in such an airplane.

5112
If the minimum safe speed for any particular operation is greater than the maximum speed prescribed in 14 CFR part 91, the
A) operator must have a Memorandum of Agreement (MOA) with the controlling agency.
B) aircraft may be operated at that speed.
C) operator must have a Letter of Agreement with ATC.

5051
Each required flight crewmember is required to keep his or her shoulder harness fastened
A) during takeoff and landing only when passengers are aboard the aircraft.
B) during takeoff and landing, unless he or she is unable to perform required duties.
C) while the crewmembers are at their stations, unless he or she is unable to perform required duties.

5364
Of the following, which is accurate regarding turbulence associated with thunderstorms?
A) Outside the cloud, shear turbulence can be encountered 50 miles laterally from a severe storm.
B) Shear turbulence is encountered only inside cumulonimbus clouds or within a 5-mile radius of them.
C) Outside the cloud, shear turbulence can be encountered 20 miles laterally from a severe storm.

5076
An airplane is overtaking a helicopter. Which aircraft has the right-of-way?
A) Helicopter; the pilot should expect to be passed on the left.
B) Airplane; the airplane pilot should alter course to the left to pass.
C) Helicopter; the pilot should expect to be passed on the right.

5066
Which is required equipment for powered aircraft during VFR night flights?
A) Flashlight with red lens, if the flight is for hire.
B) An electric landing light, if the flight is for hire.
C) Sensitive altimeter adjustable for barometric pressure.

5335
What type weather can one expect from moist, unstable air, and very warm surface temperatures?
A) Strong updrafts and cumulonimbus clouds.
B) Fog and low stratus clouds.
C) Continuous heavy precipitation.

5751
During a takeoff made behind a departing large jet airplane, the pilot can minimize the hazard of wingtip vortices by
A) being airborne prior to reaching the jet's flightpath until able to turn clear of its wake.
B) maintaining extra speed on takeoff and climbout.
C) extending the takeoff roll and not rotating until well beyond the jet's rotation point.

5073
Which is true with respect to formation flights? Formation flights are
A) authorized when carrying passengers for hire, with prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft in the formation.
B) not authorized, unless the pilot in command of each aircraft is trained and found competent in formation.
C) not authorized, except by arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft.

5116
When approaching to land at an airport, without an operating control tower, in Class G airspace, the pilot should
A) make all turns to the left, unless otherwise indicated.
B) enter and fly a traffic pattern at 800 feet AGL.
C) fly a left-hand traffic pattern at 800 feet AGL.

5754
When landing behind a large aircraft, which procedure should be followed for vortex avoidance?
A) Stay above its final approach flightpath all the way to touchdown.
B) Stay below and to one side of its final approach flightpath.
C) Stay well below its final approach flightpath and land at least 2,000 feet behind.

5352
Hazardous wind shear is commonly encountered
A) near warm or stationary frontal activity.
B) when the wind velocity is stronger than 35 knots.
C) in areas of temperature inversion and near thunderstorms.

5306
GIVEN:
Pressure altitude 12,000 ft
True air temperature +50 °F
From the conditions given, the approximate density altitude is
A) 18,150 feet.
B) 14,130 feet.
C) 11,900 feet.

5093
Who is primarily responsible for maintaining an aircraft in an airworthy condition?
A) Owner or operator of the aircraft.
B) Pilot in command or operator.
C) The lead mechanic responsible for that aircraft.

5334
From which measurement of the atmosphere can stability be determined?
A) Atmospheric pressure.
B) The ambient lapse rate.
C) The dry adiabatic lapse rate.

5085
What is the minimum flight visibility and proximity to cloud requirements for VFR flight, at 6,500 feet MSL, in Class C, D, and E airspace?
A) 3 miles visibility; 1,000 feet above and 500 feet below.
B) 1 mile visibility; clear of clouds.
C) 5 miles visibility; 1,000 feet above and 1,000 feet below.

5752
Which procedure should you follow to avoid wake turbulence if a large jet crosses your course from left to right approximately 1 mile ahead and at your altitude?
A) Make sure you are slightly above the path of the jet.
B) Slow your airspeed to VA and maintain altitude and course.
C) Make sure you are slightly below the path of the jet and perpendicular to the course.

5076
A pilot flying a single-engine airplane observes a multiengine airplane approaching from the left. Which pilot should give way?
A) The pilot of the multiengine airplane should give way; the single-engine airplane is to its right.
B) Each pilot should alter course to the right.
C) The pilot of the single-engine airplane should give way; the other airplane is to the left.

5076
During a night operation, the pilot of aircraft #1 sees only the green light of aircraft #2. If the aircraft are converging, which pilot has the right-of-way? The pilot of aircraft
A) #2; aircraft #2 is to the left of aircraft #1.
B) #1; aircraft #1 is to the right of aircraft #2.
C) #2; aircraft #2 is to the right of aircraft #1

5118
When approaching to land at an airport with an ATC facility, in Class D airspace, the pilot must establish communications prior to
A) 30 SM, and be transponder equipped.
B) 10 NM, up to and including 3,000 feet AGL.
C) 4 NM, up to and including 2,500 feet AGL.

5336
Which would increase the stability of an air mass?
A) Cooling from below.
B) Decrease in water vapor.
C) Warming from below.

5025
What flight time may a pilot log as second in command?
A) All flight time while acting as second in command in aircraft configured for more than one pilot.
B) Only that flight time during which the second in command is the sole manipulator of the controls.
C) All flight time when qualified and occupying a crewmember station in an aircraft that requires more than one pilot.

5333
Which would decrease the stability of an air mass?
A) Cooling from below.
B) Warming from below.
C) Decrease in water vapor.

5360
Which situation would most likely result in freezing precipitation? Rain falling from air which has a temperature of
A) more than 32 °F into air having a temperature of 32 °F or less.
B) 0 °C or less into air having a temperature of 0 °C or more.
C) 32 °F or less into air having a temperature of more than 32 °F.

5560
Weather Advisory Broadcasts, including Severe Weather Forecast Alerts (AWW), Convective SIGMETs, and SIGMETs, are provided by
A) ARTCCs on all frequencies, except emergency, when any part of the area described is within 150 miles of the airspace under their jurisdiction.
B) AFSSs on 122.2 MHz and adjacent VORs, when any part of the area described is within 200 miles of the airspace under their jurisdiction.
C) selected low-frequency and/or VOR navigational aids.

5021
A second-class medical certificate issued to a commercial pilot on April 10, this year, permits the pilot to exercise which of the following privileges?
A) Commercial pilot privileges through April 30, next year.
B) Private pilot privileges through, but not after, March 31, next year.
C) Commercial pilot privileges through April 10, 2 years later.

5052
With U.S.-registered civil airplanes, the use of safety belts is required during movement on the surface, takeoffs, and landings for
A) each person over 2 years of age on board.
B) commercial passenger operations only.
C) safe operating practice, but not required by regulations.

5409
What is the meaning of the terms PROB40 2102 +TSRA as used in a Terminal Aerodrome Forecasts (TAF)
A) Probability of heavy thunderstorms with rain showers below 4000 feet at time 2102.
B) Beginning at 2102Z forty percent (40%) probability of heavy thunderstorms and rain showers.
C) Between 2100Z and 0200Z there is a forty percent (40%) probability of thunderstorms with heavy rain.

5319
When flying into a low-pressure area in the Northern Hemisphere, the wind direction and velocity will be from the
A) right and decreasing.
B) left and increasing.
C) left and decreasing.

5114
What altimeter setting is required when operating an aircraft at 18,000 feet MSL?
A) Altimeter setting at the departure or destination airport.
B) 29.92 Inches Hg.
C) Current reported altimeter setting of a station along the route.

5047
A pilot in command (PIC) of a civil aircraft may not allow any object to be dropped from that aircraft in flight
A) unless reasonable precautions are taken to avoid injury to property.
B) if it creates a hazard to persons and property.
C) unless the PIC has permission to drop any object over private property.

5433
Which weather chart depicts conditions forecast to exist at a specific time in the future?
A) 12-Hour Significant Weather Prognostic Chart.
B) Weather Depiction Chart.
C) Freezing Level Chart.

5111
No person may operate an aircraft in simulated instrument flight conditions unless the
A) pilot has filed an IFR flight plan and received an IFR clearance.
B) other control seat is occupied by a safety pilot, who holds at least a private pilot certificate and is appropriately rated.
C) other control seat is occupied by at least an appropriately rated commercial pilot.

5049
The required preflight action relative to weather reports and fuel requirements is applicable to
A) IFR flights only.
B) any flight conducted for compensation or hire.
C) any flight not in the vicinity of an airport.

5061
In the contiguous U.S., excluding the airspace at and below 2,500 feet AGL, an operable coded transponder equipped with Mode C capability is required in all airspace above
A) 10,000 feet MSL.
B) 14,500 feet MSL.
C) 12,500 feet MSL.

5748
Pilots are required to have the anti-collision light system operating
A) anytime an engine is in operation.
B) anytime the pilot is in the cockpit.
C) during all types of operations, both day and night.

5402
The remarks section of the Aviation Routine Weather Report (METAR) contains the following coded information. What does it mean?
RMK FZDZB45 WSHFT 30 FROPA
A) Freezing drizzle with cloud bases below 4,500 feet.
B) Wind shift at three zero due to frontal passage.
C) Freezing drizzle below 4,500 feet and wind shear

5324
Ice pellets encountered during flight normally are evidence that
A) there are thunderstorms in the area.
B) a warm front is about to pass.
C) a warm front has passed.

5305
What are the standard temperature and pressure values for sea level?
A) 59 °F and 1013.2 inches Hg.
B) 15 °C and 29.92 inches Hg.
C) 15 °C and 29.92 Mb.

5098
Which is correct concerning preventive maintenance, when accomplished by a pilot?
A) A record of preventive maintenance is not required.
B) A record of preventive maintenance must be entered in the maintenance records.
C) Records of preventive maintenance must be entered in the FAA-approved flight

5316
While flying cross-country, in the Northern Hemisphere, you experience a continuous left crosswind which is associated with a major wind system. This indicates that you
A) are flying toward an area of generally unfavorable weather conditions.
B) have flown from an area of unfavorable weather conditions.
C) cannot determine weather conditions without knowing pressure changes.

5659
(Refer to figure 51.) While clearing an active runway, you are most likely clear of the ILS critical area when you pass which symbol?
A) Top red.
B) Middle yellow.
C) Bottom yellow.

5322
Virga is best described as
A) turbulent areas beneath cumulonimbus clouds.
B) wall cloud torrents trailing beneath cumulonimbus clouds which dissipate before reaching the ground.
C) streamers of precipitation trailing beneath clouds which evaporates before reaching the ground.

5044
What action must be taken when a pilot in command deviates from any rule in 14 CFR part 91?
A) Advise ATC of the pilot in command's intentions.
B) Upon the request of the Administrator, send a written report of that deviation to the Administrator.
C) Upon landing, report the deviation to the nearest FAA Flight Standards District Office.

5080
If an aircraft is not equipped with an electrical or anticollision light system, no person may operate that aircraft
A) 1 hour after sunset.
B) after sunset to sunrise.
C) after dark.

5065
Which is required equipment for powered aircraft during VFR night flights?
A) Gyroscopic direction indicator.
B) Anticollision light system.
C) Gyroscopic bank-and-pitch indicator.

5363
The most severe weather conditions, such as destructive winds, heavy hail, and tornadoes, are generally associated with
A) slow-moving warm fronts which slope above the tropopause.
B) squall lines.
C) fast-moving occluded fronts.

5323
Moisture is added to a parcel of air by
A) evaporation and condensation.
B) sublimation and condensation.
C) evaporation and sublimation.

5022
When is the pilot in command required to hold a category and class rating appropriate to the aircraft being flown?
A) On flights when carrying another person.
B) On practical tests given by an examiner or FAA Inspector.
C) All solo flights.

5351
What is an important characteristic of wind shear?
A) It is present at any level and exists in only a vertical direction.
B) It is present at only lower levels and exists in a horizontal direction.
C) It can be present at any level and can exist in both a horizontal and vertical direction.

5373
What minimum distance should exist between intense radar echoes before any attempt is made to fly between these thunderstorms?
A) 30 miles.
B) 40 miles.
C) 20 miles.

5436
What is the upper limit of the Low Level Significant Weather Prognostic Chart?
A) 18,000 feet.
B) 24,000 feet.
C) 30,000 feet.

5365
If airborne radar is indicating an extremely intense thunderstorm echo, this thunderstorm should be avoided by a distance of at least
A) 20 miles.
B) 5 miles.
C) 10 miles.

5367
Which statement is true concerning squall lines?
A) They offer the most intense weather hazards to aircraft.
B) They are associated with frontal systems only.
C) They form slowly, but move rapidly.

5371
What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm?
A) Continuous updraft.
B) Beginning of rain at the surface.
C) Roll cloud.

5050
Before beginning any flight under IFR, the pilot in command must become familiar with all available information concerning that flight. In addition, the pilot must
A) be familiar with the runway lengths at airports of intended use, and the alternatives available, if the flight cannot be completed.
B) list an alternate airport on the flight plan, and confirm adequate takeoff and landing performance at the destination airport.
C) be familiar with all instrument approaches at the destination airport.

5050
Before beginning any flight under IFR, the pilot in command must become familiar with all available information concerning that flight. In addition, the pilot must
A) be familiar with all instrument approaches at the destination airport.
B) be familiar with the runway lengths at airports of intended use, weather reports, fuel requirements, and alternatives available, if the planned flight cannot be completed.
C) list an alternate airport on the flight plan, and confirm adequate takeoff and landing performance at the destination airport.

5337
The conditions necessary for the formation of stratiform clouds are a lifting action and
A) unstable, dry air.
B) unstable, moist air.
C) stable, moist air.

5761
Hypoxia is the result of which of these conditions?
A) Excessive oxygen in the bloodstream.
B) Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain.
C) Excessive carbon dioxide in the bloodstream.

5075
Two aircraft of the same category are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing. The right-of-way belongs to the aircraft
A) that is more maneuverable, and that aircraft may, with caution, move in front of or overtake the other aircraft.
B) at the lower altitude, but the pilot shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to overtake the other aircraft.
C) at the higher altitude.

5411
Which statement pertaining to the following Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) is true?
TAF
KMEM 091135Z 0915 15005KT 5SM HZ BKN060
FM1600 VRB04KT P6SM SKC
A) Wind in the valid period implies surface winds are forecast to be greater than 5 KTS
B) Wind direction is from 160° at 4 KTS and reported visibility is 6 statute miles.
C) SKC in the valid period indicates no significant weather and sky clear.
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