ATPL Prac Questions Sec 2.

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ATPL Prac Questions Sec 2.

Post  Admin on Thu Dec 03, 2009 4:03 am

9119
Which flight conditions of a large jet airplane create the most severe flight hazard by generating wingtip vortices of the greatest strength?
A) Heavy, slow, gear and flaps up.
B) Heavy, slow, gear and flaps down.
C) Heavy, fast, gear and flaps down.

9120
Hazardous vortex turbulence that might be encountered behind large aircraft is created only when that aircraft is
A) operating at high airspeeds.
B) using high power settings.
C) developing lift.

9121
Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to
A) rise from the surface to traffic pattern altitude.
B) accumulate and remain for a period of time at the point where the takeoff roll began.
C) sink below the aircraft generating the turbulence.

9122
How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip?
A) Counterclockwise when viewed from behind the aircraft.
B) Inward, upward, and around the wingtip.
C) Outward, upward, and around the wingtip.

9123
Which statement is true concerning the wake turbulence produced by a large transport aircraft?
A) Wake turbulence behind a propeller-driven aircraft is negligible because jet engine thrust is a necessary factor in the formation of vortices.
B) The vortex characteristics of any given aircraft may be altered by extending the flaps or changing the speed.
C) Vortices can be avoided by flying 300 feet below and behind the flightpath of the generating aircraft.

9124
What effect would a light crosswind have on the wingtip vortices generated by a large airplane that has just taken off?
A) The downwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the upwind vortex.
B) A crosswind will rapidly dissipate the strength of both vortices.
C) The upwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the downwind vortex.

9125
To avoid the wingtip vortices of a departing jet airplane during takeoff, the pilot should
A) remain below the flightpath of the jet airplane.
B) lift off at a point well past the jet airplane's flightpath.
C) climb above and stay upwind of the jet airplane's flightpath.

9126
What wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest period of time?
A) Light quartering headwind.
B) Light quartering tailwind.
C) Direct tailwind.

9127
If you take off behind a heavy jet that has just landed, you should plan to lift off
A) beyond the point where the jet touched down.
B) at the point where the jet touched down and on the upwind edge of the runway.
C) prior to the point where the jet touched down.

9715
To allow pilots of in-trail lighter aircraft make flight path adjustments to avoid wake turbulence, pilots of heavy and large jet aircraft should fly
A) below the established glidepath and slightly to either side of the on-course centerline .
B) above the established glidepath and slightly downwind of the on-course centerline.
C) on the established glidepath and on the approach course centerline or runway centerline extended.

9163
En route at FL 270, the altimeter is set correctly. On descent, a pilot fails to set the local altimeter setting of 30.57. If the field elevation is 650 feet, and the altimeter is functioning properly, what will it indicate upon landing?
A) 1,300 feet.
B) 585 feet.
C) Sea level.

9164
What is corrected altitude (approximate true altitude)?
A) Density altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard.
B) Indicated altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard.
C) Pressure altitude corrected for instrument error.

9172
If the ambient temperature is warmer than standard at FL 350, what is the density altitude compared to pressure altitude?
A) Lower than pressure altitude.
B) Higher than pressure altitude.
C) Impossible to determine without information on possible inversion layers at lower altitudes.

9173
If the ambient temperature is colder than standard at FL 310, what is the relationship between true altitude and pressure altitude?
A) Pressure altitude is lower than true altitude.
B) True altitude is lower than 31,000 feet.
C) They are both the same, 31,000 feet.

9174
Which pressure is defined as station pressure?
A) Altimeter setting.
B) Station barometric pressure reduced to sea level.
C) Actual pressure at field elevation.

9354
A person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding
A) 12 hours.
B) 24 hours.
C) 8 hours.

9054
What airport condition is reported by the tower when more than one wind condition at different positions on the airport is reported?
A) Wind shear.
B) Light and variable.
C) Frontal passage.

9101
What is a symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning?
A) Pain and cramping of the hands and feet.
B) Rapid, shallow breathing.
C) Dizziness.

9102
Which would most likely result in hyperventilation?
A) A stressful situation causing anxiety.
B) An extremely slow rate of breathing and insufficient oxygen.
C) The excessive consumption of alcohol.

9103
What causes hypoxia?
A) Excessive carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
B) A decrease of oxygen partial pressure.
C) An increase in nitrogen content of the air at high altitudes.

9104
Which is a common symptom of hyperventilation?
A) Increased vision keenness.
B) Decreased breathing rate.
C) Tingling of the hands, legs, and feet.

9105
Loss of cabin pressure may result in hypoxia because as cabin altitude increases
A) oxygen partial pressure is decreased.
B) the percentage of oxygen in the air is decreased.
C) the percentage of nitrogen in the air is increased.

9106
Hypoxia is the result of which of these conditions?
A) Excessive carbon dioxide in the bloodstream.
B) Limited oxygen reaching the heart muscles.
C) Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain.

9107
When making an approach to a narrower-than-usual runway, without VASI assistance, the pilot should be aware that the approach
A) may result in leveling off too high and landing hard.
B) altitude may be higher than it appears.
C) altitude may be lower than it appears.

9108
The illusion of being in a noseup attitude which may occur during a rapid acceleration takeoff is known as
A) inversion illusion.
B) somatogravic illusion.
C) autokinesis.

9109
In the dark, a stationary light will appear to move when stared at for a period of time. This illusion is known as
A) autokinesis.
B) somatogravic illusion.
C) ground lighting illusion.

9110
When making a landing over darkened or featureless terrain such as water or snow, a pilot should be aware of the possibility of illusion. The approach may appear to be too
A) shallow.
B) low.
C) high.

9111
What is the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body?
A) Alcohol has an adverse effect, especially as altitude increases.
B) Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decision-making abilities.
C) Alcohol has little effect if followed by equal quantities of black coffee.

9112
A pilot is more subject to spatial disorientation when
A) body sensations are used to interpret flight attitudes.
B) ignoring or overcoming the sensations of muscles and inner ear.
C) eyes are moved often in the process of cross-checking the flight instruments.

9113
Which procedure is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation?
A) Rely on the kinesthetic sense.
B) Rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments.
C) Reduce head and eye movement to the greatest possible extent.

9115
While making prolonged constant rate turns under IFR conditions, an abrupt head movement can create the illusion of rotation on an entirely different axis. This is known as
A) Coriolis illusion.
B) autokinesis.
C) the leans.

9116
Which observed target aircraft would be of most concern with respect to collision avoidance?
A) One which appears to be ahead and moving from left to right at high speed.
B) One which appears to be ahead and moving from right to left at slow speed.
C) One which appears to be ahead with no lateral or vertical movement and is increasing in size.

9117
Scanning procedures for effective collision avoidance should constitute
A) 1 minute inside scanning, then 1 minute outside scanning , then repeat.
B) looking outside every 30 seconds except in radar contact when outside scanning is unnecessary.
C) looking outside for 15 seconds, then inside for 5 seconds, then repeat.

9118
When using the Earth's horizon as a reference point to determine the relative position of other aircraft, most concern would be for aircraft
A) above the horizon and increasing in size.
B) on the horizon with little relative movement.
C) on the horizon and increasing in size.

9433
Haze can give the illusion that the aircraft is
A) the same distance from the runway as when there is no restriction to visibility.
B) farther from the runway than it actually is.
C) closer to the runway than it actually is.

9434
Sudden penetration of fog can create the illusion of
A) pitching down.
B) leveling off.
C) pitching up.

9435
What illusion, if any, can rain on the windscreen create?
A) Higher than actual.
B) Lower than actual.
C) Does not cause illusions.

9333
An applicant who is scheduled for a practical test for an airline transport pilot certificate, in an approved flight simulator, is
A) required to have a first-class medical certificate.
B) required to have at least a current third-class medical certificate.
C) not required to have a medical certificate.

9335
An applicant who is taking a practical test for a type rating to be added to a commercial pilot certificate, in an approved simulator, is
A) required to have a second-class medical certificate.
B) required to have a first-class medical certificate.
C) not required to have a medical certificate.

9339
A pilot, acting as second in command, successfully completes the instrument competency check specified in FAR Part 61. How long does this pilot remain current if no further IFR flights are made?
A) 6 months.
B) 12 months.
C) 90 days.

9340
An applicant who is scheduled for a practical test for an airline transport pilot certificate, in an aircraft, needs
A) a first-class medical certificate.
B) at least a current third-class medical certificate.
C) a second-class medical certificate.

9342
What instrument flight time may be logged by a second in command of an aircraft requiring two pilots?
A) One-half the time the flight is on an IFR flight plan.
B) One-half the time the airplane is in actual IFR conditions.
C) All of the time the second in command is controlling the airplane solely by reference to flight instruments.

9343
When a type rating is to be added to an airline transport pilot certificate, and the practical test is scheduled in an approved flight training device and/or approved flight simulator, the applicant is
A) required to have a first-class medical certificate.
B) required to have at least a third-class medical certificate.
C) is not required to have a medical certificate.

9344
To satisfy the minimum required instrument experience for IFR operations, a pilot must accomplish during the past 6 months at least
A) six instrument approaches, holding, intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigation systems in an approved flight training device/simulator or in the categroy of aircraft to be flown.
B) six instrument approaches, three of which must be in the same category and class of aircraft to be flown, plus holding, intercepting and tracking courses in any aircraft.
C) six instrument approaches and 6 hours of instrument time, three of which may be in a glider.

9350
Unless otherwise authorized, when is the pilot in command required to hold a type rating?
A) When operating a multiengine aircraft having a gross weight of more than 6,000 pounds.
B) When operating an aircraft that is certificated for more than one pilot.
C) When operating an aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12,500 pounds.

9351
When a temporary replacement is received for an airman's medical certificate, for what maximum time is this document valid?
A) 30 days.
B) 90 days.
C) 60 days.

9407
A function of the minimum equipment list is to indicate required items which
A) are required to be operative for overwater passenger air carrier flights.
B) may be inoperative for a one-time ferry flight of a large airplane to a maintenance base.
C) may be inoperative prior to beginning a flight in an aircraft.

9408
When is DME required for an instrument flight?
A) At or above 24,000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required.
B) In terminal radar service areas.
C) Above 12,500 feet MSL.

9019
What would be the identification when a VORTAC is undergoing routine maintenance and is considered unreliable?
A) Identifier is preceded by "M" and an intermittent "OFF" flag would appear.
B) A test signal, "TESTING", is sent every 30 seconds.
C) The identifier would be removed.

9020
Which indication may be received when a VOR is undergoing maintenance and is considered unreliable?
A) An automatic voice recording stating the VOR is out-of-service for maintenance.
B) Identifier is preceded by "M" and an intermittent "OFF" flag might appear.
C) Coded identification T-E-S-T.

9258
What type service should normally be expected from an En Route Flight Advisory Service?
A) Severe weather information, changes in flight plans, and receipt of position reports.
B) Radar vectors for traffic separation, route weather advisories, and altimeter settings.
C) Weather advisories pertinent to the type of flight, intended route of flight, and altitude.

9261
Below FL 180, en route weather advisories should be obtained from an FSS on
A) 122.0 MHz.
B) 122.1 MHz.
C) 123.6 MHz.
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