Instrument Rating Prac Questions Sec 3.

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Instrument Rating Prac Questions Sec 3.

Post  Admin on Thu Dec 03, 2009 3:53 am

4448
What action should you take if your DME fails at FL 240?
A) Advise ATC of the failure and land at the nearest available airport where repairs can be made.
B) Notify ATC of the failure and continue to the next airport of intended landing where repairs can be made.
C) Notify ATC that it will be necessary for you to go to a lower altitude, since your DME has failed.

4783
(Refer to figure 135.) Which illustration would a pilot observe when on the lower glidepath?
A) 4.
B) 6.
C) 5.

4812
Which statement is correct regarding the use of cockpit lighting for night flight?
A) The use of regular white light, such as a flashlight, will impair night adaptation.
B) Reducing the lighting intensity to a minimum level will eliminate blind spots.
C) Coloration shown on maps is least affected by the use of direct red lighting.

4288
(Refer to figure 38.) What aircraft equipment code should be entered in block 3 of the flight plan?
A) A.
B) R.
C) C.

4523
(Refer to figure 92.) What in-flight visibility and distance from clouds is required for a flight at 8,500 feet MSL (above 1,200 feet AGL) in Class G airspace in VFR conditions during daylight hours in area 4?
A) 3 miles; (E) 1,000 feet; (G) 2,000 feet; (H) 500 feet.
B) 5 miles; (E) 1,000 feet; (G) 1 mile; (H) 1,000 feet.
C) 1 mile; (E) 1,000 feet; (G) 2,000 feet; (H) 500 feet.

4059
When may a pilot file a composite flight plan?
A) Any time a landing is planned at an intermediate airport.
B) Any time a portion of the flight will be VFR.
C) When requested or advised by ATC.

4124
Unsaturated air flowing upslope will cool at the rate of approximately (dry adiabatic lapse rate)
A) 2.5 °C per 1,000 feet.
B) 3 °C per 1,000 feet.
C) 2 °C per 1,000 feet.

4774
(Refer to figure 134.) Unless a higher angle is necessary for obstacle clearance, what is the normal glidepath angle for a 2 bar VASI?
A) 3.00°.
B) 2.75°.
C) 3.25°.

4382
(Refer to figure 81.) When checking a dual VOR system by use of a VOT, which illustration indicates the VOR's are satisfactory?
A) 4.
B) 1.
C) 2.

4020
How may a pilot satisfy the recent instrument experience requirement necessary to act as pilot in command in IMC in powered aircraft? Within the previous 6 calendar months, logged
A) 6 hours of instrument time under actual or simulated IFR conditions within the last 3 months, including at least six instrument approaches of any kind. Three of the 6 hours must be in flight in any category aircraft.
B) six instrument approaches, holding procedures, and intercepting and tracking courses using navigational systems.
C) six instrument approaches and 3 hours under actual or simulated IFR conditions within the last 6 months; three of the approaches must be in the category of aircraft involved.

4027
To meet the minimum required instrument flight experience to act as a pilot in command of an aircraft under IFR, you must have logged within the preceding 6 calendar months in the same category aircraft: six instrument approaches,
A) three of which must be in the same category and class of aircraft to be flown, and 6 hours of instrument time in any aircraft.
B) holding procedures, intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigation systems.
C) and 6 hours of instrument time in any aircraft.

4381
During an IFR flight in IMC, a distress condition is encountered, (fire, mechanical, or structural failure). The pilot should
A) wait until the situation is immediately perilous before declaring an emergency.
B) contact ATC and advise that an urgency condition exists and request priority consideration.
C) not hesitate to declare an emergency and obtain an amended clearance.

4050
Where is DME required under IFR?
A) At or above 24,000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required.
B) Above 18,000 feet MSL.
C) In positive control airspace.

4474
The vertical extent of the Class A airspace throughout the conterminous U.S. extends from
A) 18,000 feet to and including FL 450.
B) 18,000 feet to and including FL 600.
C) 12,500 feet to and including FL 600.

4784
(Refer to figure 135.) Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is above both glidepaths?
A) 7.
B) 5.
C) 6.

4791
(Refer to figure 137.) What is the distance (A) from the beginning of the runway to the fixed distance marker?
A) 500 feet.
B) 1,500 feet.
C) 1,000 feet.

4146
Which procedure is recommended if a pilot should unintentionally penetrate embedded thunderstorm activity?
A) Reverse aircraft heading or proceed toward an area of known VFR conditions.
B) Reduce airspeed to maneuvering speed and maintain a constant altitude.
C) Set power for recommended turbulence penetration airspeed and attempt to maintain a level flight attitude.

4259
(Refer to figures 21 and 21A, 22 and 22A, 23, 24, 25, and 26.) After departing GJT and arriving at Durango Co., La Plata Co. Airport, you are unable to land because of weather.
How long can you hold over DRO before departing for return flight to the alternate, Grand Junction Co., Walker Field Airport?
Total useable fuel on board, 68 gallons.
Wind and velocity at 16,000, 2308-16°.
Average fuel consumption 15 GPH.
A) 1 hour 33 minutes.
B) 1 hour 37 minutes.
C) 1 hour 42 minutes.

4061
What is the recommended procedure for transitioning from VFR to IFR on a composite flight plan?
A) Prior to reaching the proposed point for change to IFR, contact ARTCC, request your IFR clearance, and instruct them to cancel the VFR flight plan.
B) Upon reaching the proposed point for change to IFR, contact the nearest FSS and cancel your VFR flight plan, then contact ARTCC and request an IFR clearance.
C) Prior to transitioning to IFR, contact the nearest FSS, close the VFR portion, and request ATC clearance.

4777
Tricolor Visual Approach Indicators normally consist of
A) three separate light projecting units of very high candle power with a daytime range of approximately 5 miles.
B) three separate light units, each projecting a different color approach path.
C) a single unit, projecting a three color visual approach path.

4091
Which condition would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than actually flown (true altitude)?
A) Air temperature warmer than standard.
B) Air temperature lower than standard.
C) Atmospheric pressure lower than standard.

4710
When landing behind a large jet aircraft, at which point on the runway should you plan to land?
A) If any crosswind, land on the windward side of the runway and prior to the jet's touchdown point.
B) At least 1,000 feet beyond the jet's touchdown point.
C) Beyond the jet's touchdown point.

4110
Which of the following defines the type of altitude used when maintaining FL 210?
A) Pressure.
B) Indicated.
C) Calibrated.

4114
What feature is associated with a temperature inversion?
A) A stable layer of air.
B) Air mass thunderstorms.
C) An unstable layer of air.

4805
Abrupt head movement during a prolonged constant rate turn in IMC or simulated instrument conditions can cause
A) pilot disorientation.
B) elevator illusion.
C) false horizon.

4072
(Refer to figure 1.) Which item(s) should be checked in block 1 for a composite flight plan?
A) IFR with an explanation in block 11.
B) VFR with an explanation in block 11.
C) VFR and IFR.

4115
What type of clouds will be formed if very stable moist air is forced upslope?
A) Vertical clouds with increasing height.
B) First stratified clouds and then vertical clouds.
C) Stratified clouds with little vertical development.

4442
Which clearance procedures may be issued by ATC without prior pilot request?
A) DP's, STAR's, and visual approaches.
B) Contact and visual approaches.
C) DP's, STAR's, and contact approaches.

4150
What is an important characteristic of wind shear?
A) It is an atmospheric condition that may be associated with a low level temperature inversion, a jet stream, or a frontal zone.
B) The Coriolis phenomenon in both high and low level air masses is the principal generating force.
C) It is an atmospheric condition that is associated exclusively with zones of convergence.

4758
If during a VFR practice instrument approach, Radar Approach Control assigns an altitude or heading that will cause you to enter the clouds, what action should be taken?
A) Abandon the approach.
B) Avoid the clouds and inform ATC that altitude/heading will not permit VFR.
C) Enter the clouds, since ATC authorization for practice approaches is considered an IFR clearance.

4416
Which service is provided for IFR arrivals by a FSS located on an airport without a control tower?
A) Automatic closing of the IFR flight plan.
B) All functions of approach control.
C) Airport advisories.

4077
Which airspaces are depicted on the En Route Low Altitude Chart?
A) Class A, special use airspace, Class D and Class E.
B) Class D, Class C, Class B, Class E and special use airspace.
C) Special use airspace, Class E, Class D, Class A, Class B and Class C.

4406
From what source can you obtain the latest FDC NOTAM's?
A) FAA AFSS/FSS.
B) Notices to Airmen publications.
C) Airport/Facility Directory.

4642
Refer to figure 119.) The final approach fix for the precision approach is located at
A) ROMEN intersection/locator outer marker.
B) DENAY intersection.
C) Glide slope intercept (lightning bolt).

4096
The primary cause of all changes in the Earth's weather is
A) variation of solar energy received by the Earth's regions.
B) movement of the air masses.
C) changes in air pressure over the Earth's surface.

4753
Approximately what height is the glide slope centerline at the MM of a typical ILS?
A) 300 feet.
B) 200 feet.
C) 100 feet.

4665
By which means may a pilot determine if a Loran C equipped aircraft is approved for IFR operations?
A) Not necessary; Loran C is not approved for IFR.
B) Check aircraft logbook.
C) Check the Airplane Flight Manual Supplement.

4161
Which precipitation type normally indicates freezing rain at higher altitudes?
A) Hail.
B) Snow.
C) Ice pellets.

4537
(Refer to figure 94.) Hold line markings at the intersection of taxiways and runways consist of four lines that extend across the width of the taxiway. These lines are
A) white, and the dashed lines are nearest the runway.
B) yellow, and the dashed lines are nearest the runway.
C) yellow, and the solid lines are nearest the runway.

4467
AIRMET's are issued on a scheduled basis every
A) 15 minutes after the hour only.
B) six hours.
C) 15 minutes until the AIRMET is canceled.

4139
What is an important characteristic of wind shear?
A) It is primarily associated with the lateral vortices generated by thunderstorms.
B) It usually exists only in the vicinity of thunderstorms, but may be found near a strong temperature inversion.
C) It may be associated with either a wind shift or a windspeed gradient at any level in the atmosphere.

4127
Frontal waves normally form on
A) rapidly moving cold fronts or warm fronts.
B) slow moving warm fronts and strong occluded fronts.
C) slow moving cold fronts or stationary fronts.

4410
What indication should a pilot receive when a VOR station is undergoing maintenance and may be considered unreliable?
A) Coded identification, but no navigation indications.
B) A voice recording on the VOR frequency announcing that the VOR is out of service for maintenance.
C) No coded identification, but possible navigation indications.

4409
What service is provided by departure control to an IFR flight when operating within the outer area of Class C airspace?
A) Separation from all aircraft.
B) Position and altitude of all traffic within 2 miles of the IFR pilot's line of flight and altitude.
C) Separation from all IFR aircraft and participating VFR aircraft.

4778
When on the proper glidepath of a 2 bar VASI, the pilot will see the near bar as
A) white and the far bar as white.
B) red and the far bar as white.
C) white and the far bar as red.

4457
What minimums must be considered in selecting an altitude when operating with a VFR on Top clearance?
A) At least 1,000 feet above the lowest MEA, appropriate MOCA, or existing meteorological condition.
B) Minimum IFR altitude, minimum distance from clouds, and visibility appropriate to altitude selected.
C) At least 500 feet above the lowest MEA, or appropriate MOCA, and at least 1,000 feet above the existing meteorological condition.

4055
What minimum navigation equipment is required for IFR flight?
A) VOR receiver and, if in ARTS III environment, a coded transponder equipped for altitude reporting.
B) VOR/LOC receiver, transponder, and DME.
C) Navigation equipment appropriate to the ground facilities to be used.

4326
(Refer to figure 58.) Which indications on the VOR receivers and DME at the Easterwood Field VOR receiver checkpoint would meet the regulatory requirement for this flight?
VOR TO/FROM VOR TO/FROM DME
No. 1 No. 2

A) 097° TO 096° TO 3.2
B) 277° FROM 280° FROM 3.3
C) 097° FROM 101° FROM 3.3

4151
Why is frost considered hazardous to flight operation?
A) Frost causes early airflow separation resulting in a loss of lift.
B) Frost changes the basic aerodynamic shape of the airfoil.
C) Frost decreases control effectiveness.

4522
(Refer to figure 92.) What is the minimum in-flight visibility and distance from clouds required in VFR conditions above clouds at 13,500 feet MSL (above 1,200 feet AGL) in Class G airspace during daylight hours for area 2?
A) 5 miles; (A) 1,000 feet; (C) 2,000 feet; (D) 500 feet.
B) 3 miles; (A) 1,000 feet; (C) 1 mile; (D) 1,000 feet.
C) 5 miles; (A) 1,000 feet; (C) 1 mile; (D) 1,000 feet.

4441
Which procedure is recommended while climbing to an assigned altitude on the airway?
A) Climb slightly on the right side of the airway when in VFR conditions.
B) Climb on the centerline of the airway except when maneuvering to avoid other air traffic in VFR conditions.
C) Climb far enough to the right side of the airway to avoid climbing or descending traffic coming from the opposite direction if in VFR conditions.

4459
What is the procedure when the DME malfunctions at or above 24,000 feet MSL?
A) Continue to your destination in VFR conditions and report the malfunction.
B) Notify ATC immediately and request an altitude below 24,000 feet.
C) After immediately notifying ATC, you may continue to the next airport of intended landing where repairs can be made.

4074
(Refer to figure 1.) What information should be entered in block 7 of an IFR flight plan if the flight has three legs, each at a different altitude?
A) Altitude for first leg and highest altitude.
B) Highest altitude.
C) Altitude for first leg.

4742
Which of these facilities may be substituted for an MM during a complete ILS IAP?
A) Surveillance and precision radar.
B) A VOR/DME fix.
C) Compass locator and precision radar.

4026
Which additional IFR experience allows you to meet the recent IFR experience requirements to act as pilot in command of an airplane under IFR?
Your present instrument experience within the preceding 6 calendar months is:
1. three hours with holding, intercepting and tracking courses in an approved airplane flight simulator.
2. two instrument approaches in an airplane.
A) Three instrument approaches in an airplane.
B) Four instrument approaches in an airplane, or an approved flight simulator or training device.
C) Three hours of simulated or actual instrument flight time in a helicopter, and two instrument approaches in an airplane or helicopter.

4076
When may a pilot cancel the IFR flight plan prior to completing the flight?
A) Any time.
B) Only in VFR conditions outside positive controlled airspace.
C) Only if an emergency occurs.

4395
What response is expected when ATC issues an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A) Read back the entire clearance as required by regulation.
B) Read back should be unsolicited and spontaneous to confirm that the pilot understands all instructions.
C) Read back those parts containing altitude assignments or vectors and any part requiring verification.

4779
If an approach is being made to a runway that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all the VASI lights appear red as the airplane reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A) continue at the same rate of descent if the runway is in sight.
B) level off momentarily to intercept the proper approach path.
C) start a climb to reach the proper glidepath.

4534
(Refer to figure 94.) Mandatory airport instruction signs are designated by having
A) white lettering with a red background.
B) black lettering with a yellow background.
C) yellow lettering with a black background.

4327
(Refer to figures 59 and 60.) What are the operating hours (local standard time) of the Houston EFAS?
A) 0700 to 2300.
B) 0600 to 2200.
C) 1800 to 1000.

4160
If you fly into severe turbulence, which flight condition should you attempt to maintain?
A) Level flight attitude.
B) Constant airspeed (VA).
C) Constant altitude and constant airspeed.

4785
(Refer to figure 135.) Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is below both glidepaths?
A) 5.
B) 6.
C) 4.

4051
An aircraft operated under 14 CFR part 91 IFR is required to have which of the following?
A) Radar altimeter.
B) Dual VOR system.
C) Gyroscopic direction indicator.

4422
What is meant when departure control instructs you to "resume own navigation'' after you have been vectored to a Victor airway?
A) You should maintain the airway by use of your navigation equipment.
B) You are still in radar contact, but must make position reports.
C) Radar service is terminated.

4714
Which procedure should be followed by a pilot who is circling to land in a Category B airplane, but is maintaining a speed 5 knots faster than the maximum specified for that category?
A) Use Category B minimums.
B) Use the approach minimums appropriate for Category C.
C) Use Category D minimums since they apply to all circling approaches.

4803
Due to visual illusion, when landing on a narrower than usual runway, the aircraft will appear to be
A) higher than actual, leading to a higher than normal approach.
B) higher than actual, leading to a lower than normal approach.
C) lower than actual, leading to a higher than normal approach.

4524
(Refer to figure 92.) What is the minimum in-flight visibility and distance from clouds required for an airplane operating less than 1,200 feet AGL during daylight hours in area 6?
A) 1 mile; (I) clear of clouds; (K) clear of clouds; (L) clear of clouds.
B) 1 mile; (I) 500 feet; (K) 1,000 feet; (L) 500 feet.
C) 3 miles; (I) 1,000 feet; (K) 2,000 feet; (L) 500 feet.

4449
Which rules apply to the pilot in command when operating on a VFR on Top clearance?
A) VFR only.
B) VFR and IFR.
C) VFR when "in the clear'' and IFR when "in the clouds.''

4432
The MEA assures acceptable navigational signal coverage and
A) radar coverage.
B) DME response.
C) meets obstacle clearance requirements.

4438
When an aircraft is not equipped with a transponder, what requirement must be met before ATC will authorize a flight within class B airspace?
A) The proposed flight must be conducted in visual meteorological conditions (VMC).
B) The proposed flight must be conducted when operating under instrument flight rules.
C) A request for the proposed flight must be made to ATC at least 1 hour before the flight.

4133
Which family of clouds is least likely to contribute to structural icing on an aircraft?
A) High clouds.
B) Clouds with extensive vertical development.
C) Low clouds.

4384
How should the pilot make a VOR receiver check when the airplane is located on the designated checkpoint on the airport surface?
A) With the aircraft headed directly toward the VOR and the OBS set to 000°, the CDI should center within plus or minus 4° of that radial with a TO indication.
B) Set the OBS on the designated radial. The CDI must center within plus or minus 4° of that radial with a FROM indication.
C) Set the OBS on 180° plus or minus 4°; the CDI should center with a FROM indication.

4145
Which thunderstorms generally produce the most severe conditions, such as heavy hail and destructive winds?
A) Warm front.
B) Air mass.
C) Squall line.

4383
While airborne, what is the maximum permissible variation between the two indicated bearings when checking one VOR system against the other?
A) Plus or minus 6° when set to identical radials of a VOR.
B) 4° between the two indicated bearings to a VOR.
C) Plus or minus 4° when set to identical radials of a VOR.

4344
(Refer to figure 69.) What aircraft equipment code should be entered in block 3 of the flight plan?
A) A.
B) B.
C) U.

4169
Which conditions are favorable for the formation of radiation fog?
A) Cloudy sky and a light wind moving saturated warm air over a cool surface.
B) Clear sky, little or no wind, small temperature/dewpoint spread, and over a land surface.
C) Moist air moving over colder ground or water.

4796
The primary purpose of runway end identifier lights, installed at many airfields, is to provide
A) a warning of the final 3,000 feet of runway remaining as viewed from the takeoff or approach position.
B) rapid identification of the approach end of the runway during reduced visibility.
C) rapid identification of the primary runway during reduced visibility.

4138
Where does wind shear occur?
A) Wherever there is an abrupt decrease in pressure and/or temperature.
B) Exclusively in thunderstorms.
C) With either a wind shift or a windspeed gradient at any level in the atmosphere.

4732
Which substitution is permitted when an ILS component is inoperative?
A) DME, when located at the localizer antenna site, should be substituted for the outer or middle marker.
B) A compass locator or precision radar may be substituted for the ILS outer or middle marker.
C) ADF or VOR bearings which cross either the outer or middle marker sites may be substituted for these markers.

4463
Which procedure should you follow if you experience two way communications failure while holding at a holding fix with an EFC time? (The holding fix is not the same as the approach fix.)
A) Proceed immediately to the approach fix and hold until EFC.
B) Depart the holding fix at the EFC time.
C) Depart the holding fix to arrive at the approach fix as close as possible to the EFC time.

4047
Your aircraft had the static pressure system and altimeter tested and inspected on January 5, of this year, and was found to comply with FAA standards. These systems must be reinspected and approved for use in controlled airspace under IFR by
A) January 31, 2 years hence.
B) January 5, next year.
C) January 5, 2 years hence.

4375
The aircraft's transponder fails during flight within Class D airspace.
A) The pilot should immediately request clearance to depart the Class D airspace.
B) Pilot must immediately request priority handling to proceed to destination.
C) No deviation is required because a transponder is not required in Class D airspace.

4708
Wake turbulence is near maximum behind a jet transport just after takeoff because
A) the engines are at maximum thrust output at slow airspeed.
B) of the high angle of attack and high gross weight.
C) the gear and flap configuration increases the turbulence to maximum.

4788
(Refer to figure 136.) Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is on a glidepath higher than 3.5°?
A) 8.
B) 11.
C) 9.

4075
(Refer to figure 1.) Which equipment determines the code to be entered in block 3 as a suffix to aircraft type on the flight plan form?
A) DME, ADF, and airborne radar.
B) DME, transponder, and RNAV.
C) DME, transponder, and ADF.

4105
What causes surface winds to flow across the isobars at an angle rather than parallel to the isobars?
A) Surface friction.
B) The greater density of the air at the surface.
C) Coriolis force.

4542
MEA is an altitude which assures
A) a 1,000-foot obstacle clearance within 2 miles of an airway and assures accurate DME mileage.
B) acceptable navigational signal coverage and meets obstruction clearance requirements.
C) obstacle clearance, accurate navigational signals from more than one VORTAC, and accurate DME mileage.

4393
What is the recommended climb procedure when a nonradar departure control instructs a pilot to climb to the assigned altitude?
A) Climb at a maximum angle of climb to within 1,000 feet of the assigned altitude, then 500 feet per minute the last 1,000 feet.
B) Maintain a continuous optimum climb until reaching assigned altitude and report passing each 1,000 foot level.
C) Maintain an optimum climb on the centerline of the airway without intermediate level offs until 1,000 feet below assigned altitude, then 500 to 1500 feet per minute.

4447
Where are VFR on Top operations prohibited?
A) During off airways direct flights.
B) In Class A airspace.
C) When flying through Class B airspace.

4390
When should your transponder be on Mode C while on an IFR flight?
A) Only when ATC requests Mode C.
B) At all times if the equipment has been calibrated, unless requested otherwise by ATC.
C) When passing 12,500 feet MSL.

4775
Which of the following indications would a pilot see while approaching to land on a runway served by a 2 bar VASI?
A) If on the glidepath, the near bars will appear red, and the far bars will appear white.
B) If departing to the high side of the glidepath, the far bars will change from red to white.
C) If on the glidepath, both near bars and far bars will appear white.

4164
In which situation is advection fog most likely to form?
A) Warm, moist air settling over a warmer surface under no wind conditions.
B) An air mass moving inland from the coast in winter.
C) A light breeze blowing colder air out to sea.

4792
(Refer to figure 137.) What is the distance (B) from the beginning of the runway to the touchdown zone marker?
A) 250 feet.
B) 500 feet.
C) 750 feet.

4431
When must a pilot fly at a cardinal altitude plus 500 feet on an IFR flight plan?
A) When assigned a VFR on Top clearance.
B) When flying in VFR conditions above clouds.
C) When flying above 18,000 feet in VFR conditions.

4388
In which publication can the VOR receiver ground checkpoint(s) for a particular airport be found?
A) En Route Low Altitude Chart.
B) Airport/Facility Directory.
C) Airman's Information Manual.

4353
(Refer to figure 73.) Which sequence of marker beacon indicator lights, and their respective codes, will you receive on the ILS RWY 6 approach procedure to the MAP?
A) Blue - dashes; amber - alternate dots and dashes.
B) Amber - alternate dots and dashes; blue - dashes.
C) Blue - alternate dots and dashes; amber - dashes.

4165
In what localities is advection fog most likely to occur?
A) Coastal areas.
B) Mountain slopes.
C) Level inland areas.

4362
(Refer to figure 76.) Which indication would be an acceptable accuracy check of both VOR receivers when the airplane is located on the VOR receiver checkpoint at the Helena Regional Airport?
A) B.
B) A.
C) C.

4408
The operation of an airport rotating beacon during daylight hours may indicate that
A) the ground visibility is less than 3 miles and/or the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet in Class B, C, or D airspace.
B) an IFR clearance is required to operate within the airport traffic area.
C) the in flight visibility is less than 3 miles and the ceiling is less than 1,500 feet within Class E airspace.

4120
What are some characteristics of unstable air?
A) Turbulence and good surface visibility.
B) Nimbostratus clouds and good surface visibility.
C) Turbulence and poor surface visibility.
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