Instrument Rating Prac Questions Sec 2.

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Instrument Rating Prac Questions Sec 2.

Post  Admin on Thu Dec 03, 2009 3:52 am

Which clearance procedures may be issued by ATC without prior pilot request?
A) DP's, STAR's, and contact approaches.
B) Contact and visual approaches.
C) DP's, STAR's, and visual approaches.

A high cloud is composed mostly of
A) condensation nuclei.
B) ice crystals.
C) ozone.

A common type of ground or surface based temperature inversion is that which is produced by
A) the movement of colder air over warm air, or the movement of warm air under cold air.
B) ground radiation on clear, cool nights when the wind is light.
C) warm air being lifted rapidly aloft in the vicinity of mountainous terrain.

The pilot in command of a civil aircraft must have an instrument rating only when operating
A) in weather conditions less than the minimum prescribed for VFR flight.
B) under IFR in positive control airspace.
C) under IFR, in weather conditions less than the minimum for VFR flight, or in class A airspace.

(Refer to figure 13.) How will the aircraft in position 4 be affected by a microburst encounter?
A) Performance decreasing with a headwind and downdraft.
B) Performance decreasing with a tailwind and downdraft.
C) Performance increasing with a tailwind and updraft.

Which technique should a pilot use to scan for traffic to the right and left during straight and level flight?
A) Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals.
B) Concentrate on relative movement detected in the peripheral vision area.
C) Continuous sweeping of the windshield from right to left.

Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding altitude and course to be maintained during an off airways IFR flight over nonmountainous terrain?
A) 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 3 NM of course.
B) 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 4 NM of course.
C) 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 5 SM of course.

What is the recommended procedure for transitioning from VFR to IFR on a composite flight plan?
A) Prior to transitioning to IFR, contact the nearest FSS, close the VFR portion, and request ATC clearance.
B) Prior to reaching the proposed point for change to IFR, contact ARTCC, request your IFR clearance, and instruct them to cancel the VFR flight plan.
C) Upon reaching the proposed point for change to IFR, contact the nearest FSS and cancel your VFR flight plan, then contact ARTCC and request an IFR clearance.

After your recent IFR experience lapses, how much time do you have before you must pass an instrument competency check to act as pilot in command under IFR?
A) 12 months.
B) 6 months.
C) 90 days.

Altimeter setting is the value to which the scale of the pressure altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates
A) true altitude at field elevation.
B) pressure altitude at field elevation.
C) pressure altitude at sea level.

(Refer to figure 128.) How should a pilot determine when the DME at Price/Carbon County Airport is inoperative?
A) The airborne DME will always indicate ``0'' mileage.
B) The airborne DME may appear normal, but there will be no code tone.
C) The airborne DME will ``search,'' but will not ``lock on.''

To carry passengers for hire in an airplane on cross country flights of more than 50 NM from the departure airport, the pilot in command is required to hold at least
A) a Commercial Pilot Certificate with an instrument rating.
B) a Category II pilot authorization.
C) a First Class Medical certificate.

Aircraft approach categories are based on
A) 1.3 times the stall speed at maximum gross weight.
B) 1.3 times the stall speed in landing configuration at maximum gross landing weight.
C) certificated approach speed at maximum gross weight.

When should your transponder be on Mode C while on an IFR flight?
A) Only when ATC requests Mode C.
B) When passing 12,500 feet MSL.
C) At all times if the equipment has been calibrated, unless requested otherwise by ATC.

The vertical extent of the Class A airspace throughout the conterminous U.S. extends from
A) 18,000 feet to and including FL 600.
B) 18,000 feet to and including FL 450.
C) 12,500 feet to and including FL 600.

What feature is associated with a temperature inversion?
A) A stable layer of air.
B) Air mass thunderstorms.
C) An unstable layer of air.

(Refer to figure 126.) If cleared for a straight-in LOC approach from over OALDY, it means the flight should
A) land straight in on runway 31.
B) begin final approach without making a procedure turn.
C) comply with straight-in landing minimums.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to an IFR flight?
A) Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should correspond to the change in setting.
B) Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg. With current temperature and the altimeter indication, determine the true altitude to compare with the field elevation.
C) Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting. The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual elevation for acceptable accuracy.

How does a pilot determine if DME is available on an ILS/LOC?
A) IAP indicate DME\TACAN channel in LOC frequency box.
B) LOC\DME are indicated on en route low altitude frequency box.
C) LOC\DME frequencies available in the Airman's Information Manual.

What minimum navigation equipment is required for IFR flight?
A) VOR/LOC receiver, transponder, and DME.
B) VOR receiver and, if in ARTS III environment, a coded transponder equipped for altitude reporting.
C) Navigation equipment appropriate to the ground facilities to be used.

Which weather phenomenon is always associated with the passage of a frontal system?
A) A wind change.
B) Clouds, either ahead or behind the front.
C) An abrupt decrease in pressure.

(Refer to figure 74.) What aircraft equipment code should be entered in block 3 of the flight plan?
A) U.
B) T.
C) A.

Where are VFR on Top operations prohibited?
A) In Class A airspace.
B) When flying through Class B airspace.
C) During off airways direct flights.

(Refer to figure 1.) The time entered in block 12 for an IFR flight should be based on which fuel quantity?
A) The amount of fuel required to fly to the destination airport, then to the alternate, plus a 45 minute reserve.
B) Total fuel required for the flight.
C) Total useable fuel on board.

Which thunderstorms generally produce the most severe conditions, such as heavy hail and destructive winds?
A) Air mass.
B) Squall line.
C) Warm front.

(Refer to figure 137.) What is the distance (B) from the beginning of the runway to the touchdown zone marker?
A) 750 feet.
B) 500 feet.
C) 250 feet.

When may a pilot cancel the IFR flight plan prior to completing the flight?
A) Only if an emergency occurs.
B) Any time.
C) Only in VFR conditions outside positive controlled airspace.

When on the proper glidepath of a 2 bar VASI, the pilot will see the near bar as
A) white and the far bar as white.
B) white and the far bar as red.
C) red and the far bar as white.

Frontal waves normally form on
A) slow moving cold fronts or stationary fronts.
B) rapidly moving cold fronts or warm fronts.
C) slow moving warm fronts and strong occluded fronts.

(Refer to figure 76.) Which indication would be an acceptable accuracy check of both VOR receivers when the airplane is located on the VOR receiver checkpoint at the Helena Regional Airport?
A) B.
B) C.
C) A.

A pilot's recent IFR experience expires on July 1 of this year. What is the latest date the pilot can meet the IFR experience requirement without having to take an instrument proficiency check?
A) July 31, this year.
B) June 30, next year.
C) December 31, this year.

While airborne, what is the maximum permissible variation between the two indicated bearings when checking one VOR system against the other?
A) Plus or minus 4° when set to identical radials of a VOR.
B) Plus or minus 6° when set to identical radials of a VOR.
C) 4° between the two indicated bearings to a VOR.

When can a VFR on Top clearance be assigned by ATC?
A) Any time suitable conditions exist and ATC wishes to expedite traffic flow.
B) When VFR conditions exist, but there is a layer of clouds below the MEA.
C) Only upon request of the pilot when conditions are indicated to be suitable.

To comply with ATC instructions for altitude changes of more than 1,000 feet, what rate of climb or descent should be used?
A) As rapidly as practicable to 1,000 feet above/below the assigned altitude, and then between 500 and 1,500 feet per minute until reaching the assigned altitude.
B) As rapidly as practicable to 500 feet above/below the assigned altitude, and then at 500 feet per minute until the assigned altitude is reached.
C) 1,000 feet per minute during climb and 500 feet per minute during descents until reaching the assigned altitude.

Test data indicate that ice, snow, or frost having a thickness and roughness similar to medium or coarse sandpaper on the leading edge and upper surface of a wing can
A) reduce lift by as much as 50 percent and increase drag by as much as 50 percent.
B) increase drag and reduce lift by as much as 25 percent.
C) reduce lift by as much as 30 percent and increase drag by 40 percent.

(Refer to figure 138.) What night operations, if any, are authorized between the approach end of the runway and the threshold lights?
A) Taxi and takeoff operations are permitted, providing the takeoff operations are toward the visible green threshold lights.
B) Only taxi operations are permitted in the area short of the threshold lights.
C) No aircraft operations are permitted short of the threshold lights.

When may ATC request a detailed report of an emergency even though a rule has not been violated?
A) Any time an emergency occurs.
B) When priority has been given.
C) When the emergency occurs in controlled airspace.

(Refer to figure 137.) What is the distance (A) from the beginning of the runway to the fixed distance marker?
A) 500 feet.
B) 1,000 feet.
C) 1,500 feet.

Which airspace is defined as a transition area when designated in conjunction with an airport which has a prescribed IAP?
A) That Class D airspace extending from the surface and terminating at the base of the continental control area.
B) The Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet or more above the surface and terminating at the base of the overlying controlled airspace.
C) The Class C airspace extending from the surface to 700 or 1,200 feet AGL, where designated.

When an aircraft is not equipped with a transponder, what requirement must be met before ATC will authorize a flight within class B airspace?
A) The proposed flight must be conducted in visual meteorological conditions (VMC).
B) The proposed flight must be conducted when operating under instrument flight rules.
C) A request for the proposed flight must be made to ATC at least 1 hour before the flight.

To meet the minimum required instrument flight experience to act as a pilot in command of an aircraft under IFR, you must have logged within the preceding 6 calendar months in the same category aircraft: six instrument approaches,
A) holding procedures, intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigation systems.
B) and 6 hours of instrument time in any aircraft.
C) three of which must be in the same category and class of aircraft to be flown, and 6 hours of instrument time in any aircraft.

You enter a holding pattern at a fix, not the same as the approach fix, and receive an EFC time of 1530. At 1520 you experience complete two way communications failure. Which procedure should you follow to execute the approach to a landing?
A) Depart the holding fix at the EFC time or earlier if your flight planned ETA is before the EFC.
B) Depart the holding fix at the EFC time, and complete the approach.
C) Depart the holding fix to arrive at the approach fix as close as possible to the EFC time and complete the approach.

The presence of ice pellets at the surface is evidence that
A) there is freezing rain at a higher altitude.
B) a cold front has passed.
C) there are thunderstorms in the area.

Which indications are acceptable tolerances when checking both VOR receivers by use of the VOT?
A) 176° TO and 003° FROM, respectively.
B) 360° TO and 003° TO, respectively.
C) 001° FROM and 005° FROM, respectively.

Standing lenticular clouds, in mountainous areas, indicate
A) an inversion.
B) turbulence.
C) unstable air.

What visual illusion creates the same effect as a narrower than usual runway?
A) An upsloping runway.
B) A wider than usual runway.
C) A downsloping runway.

If an approach is being made to a runway that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all the VASI lights appear red as the airplane reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A) level off momentarily to intercept the proper approach path.
B) start a climb to reach the proper glidepath.
C) continue at the same rate of descent if the runway is in sight.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A) It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and including 6,000.
B) The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching the IAF serving the destination airport, then execute the published approach procedure.
C) The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and including 6,000, but each change in altitude must be reported to ATC.

What situation is most conducive to the formation of radiation fog?
A) Warm, moist air over low, flatland areas on clear, calm nights.
B) Moist, tropical air moving over cold, offshore water.
C) The movement of cold air over much warmer water.

Prior to operating an aircraft not equipped with a transponder in Class B airspace, a request for a deviation must be submitted to the
A) controlling ATC facility at least 1 hour before the proposed flight.
B) nearest FAA General Aviation District Office 24 hours before the proposed operation.
C) FAA Administrator at least 24 hours before the proposed operation.

(Refer to figure 77.) At which minimum altitude should you cross the STAKK intersection?
A) 6,500 feet MSL.
B) 1,400 feet MSL.
C) 10,200 feet MSL.

(Refer to figure 1.) Which equipment determines the code to be entered in block 3 as a suffix to aircraft type on the flight plan form?
A) DME, ADF, and airborne radar.
B) DME, transponder, and RNAV.
C) DME, transponder, and ADF.

(Refer to figure 135.) Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is above both glidepaths?
A) 6.
B) 5.
C) 7.

For operations off established airways at 17,000 feet MSL in the contiguous U.S., (H) Class VORTAC facilities used to define a direct route of flight should be no farther apart than
A) 200 NM.
B) 75 NM.
C) 100 NM.

What is the recommended climb procedure when a nonradar departure control instructs a pilot to climb to the assigned altitude?
A) Climb at a maximum angle of climb to within 1,000 feet of the assigned altitude, then 500 feet per minute the last 1,000 feet.
B) Maintain a continuous optimum climb until reaching assigned altitude and report passing each 1,000 foot level.
C) Maintain an optimum climb on the centerline of the airway without intermediate level offs until 1,000 feet below assigned altitude, then 500 to 1500 feet per minute.

What reports are required of a flight operating on an IFR clearance specifying VFR on Top in a nonradar environment?
A) Only the reporting of any unforecast weather.
B) All normal IFR reports except vacating altitudes.
C) The same reports that are required for any IFR flight.

What does the Runway Visual Range (RVR) value, depicted on certain straight in IAP Charts, represent?
A) The slant visual range a pilot should see down the final approach and during landing.
B) The slant range distance the pilot can see down the runway while crossing the threshold on glide slope.
C) The horizontal distance a pilot should see down the runway from the approach end of the runway.

(Refer to figure 13.) What effect will a microburst encounter have upon the aircraft in position 4?
A) Strong tailwind.
B) Significant performance increase.
C) Strong updraft.

Absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast specifically implies that
A) the ceiling is at least 3,000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more.
B) the sky condition is clear and visibility is unrestricted.
C) the ceiling is more than 5,000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more.

What action should you take if your No. 1 VOR receiver malfunctions while operating in controlled airspace under IFR? Your aircraft is equipped with two VOR receivers. The No. 1 receiver has Omni/Localizer/Glide Slope capability, and the No. 2 has only Omni.
A) Continue the flight as cleared; no report is required.
B) Report the malfunction immediately to ATC.
C) Continue the approach and request a VOR or NDB approach.

Which is a characteristic of low level wind shear as it relates to frontal activity?
A) With a cold front, the most critical period is just before the front passes the airport.
B) With a warm front, the most critical period is before the front passes the airport.
C) Turbulence will always exist in wind shear conditions.

Which substitution is appropriate during an ILS approach?
A) A VOR radial crossing the outer marker site may be substituted for the outer marker.
B) DME, when located at the localizer antenna site, should be substituted for either the outer or middle marker.
C) LOC minimums should be substituted for ILS minimums whenever the glide slope becomes inoperative.

In which situation is advection fog most likely to form?
A) Warm, moist air settling over a warmer surface under no wind conditions.
B) An air mass moving inland from the coast in winter.
C) A light breeze blowing colder air out to sea.

Which is true regarding the use of airborne weather-avoidance radar for the recognition of certain weather conditions?
A) The radarscope provides no assurance of avoiding instrument weather conditions.
B) The avoidance of hail is assured when flying between and just clear of the most intense echoes.
C) The clear area between intense echoes indicates that visual sighting of storms can be maintained when flying between the echoes.

Which force, in the Northern Hemisphere, acts at a right angle to the wind and deflects it to the right until parallel to the isobars?
A) Centrifugal.
B) Coriolis.
C) Pressure gradient.

When must a pilot fly at a cardinal altitude plus 500 feet on an IFR flight plan?
A) When flying in VFR conditions above clouds.
B) When assigned a VFR on Top clearance.
C) When flying above 18,000 feet in VFR conditions.

When the CDI needle is centered during an airborne VOR check, the omnibearing selector and the TO/FROM indicator should read
A) 0° TO, only if you are due south of the VOR.
B) within 6° of the selected radial.
C) within 4° of the selected radial.

When installed with the ILS and specified in the approach procedures, DME may be used
A) in lieu of the OM.
B) in lieu of visibility requirements.
C) to determine distance from TDZ.

Which rules apply to the pilot in command when operating on a VFR on Top clearance?
A) VFR when "in the clear'' and IFR when "in the clouds.''
B) VFR only.
C) VFR and IFR.

(Refer to figure 137.) What is the distance (C) from the beginning of the touchdown zone marker to the beginning of the fixed distance marker?
A) 500 feet.
B) 250 feet.
C) 1,000 feet.

Which is the maximum tolerance for the VOR indication when the CDI is centered and the airplane is directly over the airborne checkpoint?
A) Plus or minus 7° of the designated radial.
B) Plus or minus 6° of the designated radial.
C) Plus or minus 8° of the designated radial.

An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45 knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of
A) 80 knots.
B) 90 knots.
C) 40 knots.

Which range facility associated with the ILS is identified by the last two letters of the localizer identification group?
A) Inner marker.
B) Outer marker.
C) Middle compass locator.

What does the ATC term "Radar Contact'' signify?
A) Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight following will be provided until radar identification is terminated.
B) You will be given traffic advisories until advised the service has been terminated or that radar contact has been lost.
C) Your aircraft has been identified and you will receive separation from all aircraft while in contact with this radar facility.

Reception of signals from an off airway radio facility may be inadequate to identify the fix at the designated MEA. In this case, which altitude is designated for the fix?

(Refer to figure 94.) What sign is designated by illustration 7?
A) Mandatory instruction sign.
B) Direction sign.
C) Location sign.

(Refer to figure 135.) Unless a higher angle is required for obstacle clearance, what is the normal glidepath for a 3 bar VASI?
A) 3.0°.
B) 2.3°.
C) 2.75°.

Which of the following combinations of weather producing variables would likely result in cumuliform type clouds, good visibility, rain showers, and possible clear type icing in clouds?
A) Unstable, moist air, and no lifting mechanism.
B) Stable, dry air, and orographic lifting.
C) Unstable, moist air, and orographic lifting.

What determines the structure or type of clouds which form as a result of air being forced to ascend?
A) The method by which the air is lifted.
B) The stability of the air before lifting occurs.
C) The amount of condensation nuclei present after lifting occurs.

By which means may a pilot determine if a Loran C equipped aircraft is approved for IFR operations?
A) Check the Airplane Flight Manual Supplement.
B) Check aircraft logbook.
C) Not necessary; Loran C is not approved for IFR.

Which family of clouds is least likely to contribute to structural icing on an aircraft?
A) Clouds with extensive vertical development.
B) Low clouds.
C) High clouds.

Where do squall lines most often develop?
A) Ahead of a cold front.
B) In a cold air mass.
C) In an occluded front.

(Refer to figure 27.) What aircraft equipment code should be entered in block 3 of the flight plan?
A) U.
B) T.
C) A.

Which flight time may be logged as instrument time when on an instrument flight plan?
A) All of the time the aircraft was not controlled by ground references.
B) Only the time you controlled the aircraft solely by reference to flight instruments.
C) Only the time you were flying in IFR weather conditions.

Which conditions are favorable for the formation of radiation fog?
A) Cloudy sky and a light wind moving saturated warm air over a cool surface.
B) Clear sky, little or no wind, small temperature/dewpoint spread, and over a land surface.
C) Moist air moving over colder ground or water.

(Refer to figure 94.) Mandatory airport instruction signs are designated by having
A) black lettering with a yellow background.
B) white lettering with a red background.
C) yellow lettering with a black background.

Which statement is correct regarding the use of cockpit lighting for night flight?
A) Reducing the lighting intensity to a minimum level will eliminate blind spots.
B) Coloration shown on maps is least affected by the use of direct red lighting.
C) The use of regular white light, such as a flashlight, will impair night adaptation.

What are the four families of clouds?
A) High, middle, low, and those with extensive vertical development.
B) Stratus, cumulus, nimbus, and cirrus.
C) Clouds formed by updrafts, fronts, cooling layers of air, and precipitation into warm air.

In which airspace is VFR on Top operation prohibited?
A) Class E airspace.
B) Class B airspace.
C) Class A airspace.

For IFR planning purposes, what are the compulsory reporting points when using VOR/DME or VORTAC fixes to define a direct route not on established airways?
A) There are no compulsory reporting points unless advised by ATC.
B) At the changeover points.
C) Fixes selected to define the route.

AIRMET's are issued on a scheduled basis every
A) 15 minutes until the AIRMET is canceled.
B) 15 minutes after the hour only.
C) six hours.

(Refer to figure 69.) What aircraft equipment code should be entered in block 3 of the flight plan?
A) U.
B) A.
C) B.

When an altimeter is changed from 30.11" Hg to 29.96" Hg, in which direction will the indicated altitude change and by what value?
A) Altimeter will indicate 150 feet lower.
B) Altimeter will indicate 15 feet lower.
C) Altimeter will indicate 150 feet higher.

Which procedure should you follow if you experience two way communications failure while holding at a holding fix with an EFC time? (The holding fix is not the same as the approach fix.)
A) Depart the holding fix to arrive at the approach fix as close as possible to the EFC time.
B) Depart the holding fix at the EFC time.
C) Proceed immediately to the approach fix and hold until EFC.

In the 48 contiguous states, excluding the airspace at or below 2,500 feet AGL, an operable coded transponder equipped with Mode C capability is required in all controlled airspace at and above
A) 10,000 feet MSL.
B) 12,500 feet MSL.
C) Flight level (FL) 180.

A rapid acceleration during takeoff can create the illusion of
A) being in a noseup attitude.
B) diving into the ground.
C) spinning in the opposite direction.

Which limitation is imposed on the holder of a Commercial Pilot Certificate if that person does not hold an instrument rating?
A) That person is limited to private pilot privileges at night.
B) The carrying of passengers for hire on cross country flights is limited to 50 NM and the carrying of passengers for hire at night is prohibited.
C) The carrying of passengers or property for hire on cross country flights at night is limited to a radius of 50 NM.

If Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) is not available when setting up a GPS approach, the pilot should
A) continue the approach, expecting to recapture the satellites before reaching the FAF.
B) select another type of navigation and approach system.
C) continue to the MAP and hold until the satellites are recaptured.

What is the required flight visibility and distance from clouds if you are operating in Class E airspace at 9,500 feet MSL with a VFR-on-Top clearance during daylight hours?
A) 3 SM, 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal.
B) 3 SM, 500 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal.
C) 5 SM, 500 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal.

When are you required to have an instrument rating for flight in VMC?
A) Flight into class A airspace.
B) Flight into an ADIZ.
C) Flight through an MOA.

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