Instrument Rating Prac Questions Sec 1.

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Instrument Rating Prac Questions Sec 1.

Post  Admin on Thu Dec 03, 2009 3:51 am

4416
Which service is provided for IFR arrivals by a FSS located on an airport without a control tower?
A) Automatic closing of the IFR flight plan.
B) Airport advisories.
C) All functions of approach control.

4392
What is the significance of an ATC clearance which reads "... CRUISE SIX THOUSAND ...''?
A) The pilot may utilize any altitude from the MEA/MOCA to 6,000 feet, but each change in altitude must be reported to ATC.
B) The pilot must maintain 6,000 feet until reaching the IAF serving the destination airport, then execute the published approach procedure.
C) Climbs may be made to, or descents made from, 6,000 feet at the pilot's discretion.

4071
For which speed variation should you notify ATC?
A) Any time the groundspeed changes 10 MPH.
B) When the groundspeed changes more than 5 knots.
C) When the average true airspeed changes 5 percent or 10 knots, whichever is greater.

4794
Which runway marking indicates a displaced threshold on an instrument runway?
A) Red chevron marks in the nonlanding portion of the runway.
B) Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
C) Centerline dashes starting at the threshold.

4778
When on the proper glidepath of a 2 bar VASI, the pilot will see the near bar as
A) white and the far bar as red.
B) white and the far bar as white.
C) red and the far bar as white.

4137
Where do squall lines most often develop?
A) Ahead of a cold front.
B) In a cold air mass.
C) In an occluded front.

4812
Which statement is correct regarding the use of cockpit lighting for night flight?
A) Reducing the lighting intensity to a minimum level will eliminate blind spots.
B) Coloration shown on maps is least affected by the use of direct red lighting.
C) The use of regular white light, such as a flashlight, will impair night adaptation.

4381
During an IFR flight in IMC, a distress condition is encountered, (fire, mechanical, or structural failure). The pilot should
A) wait until the situation is immediately perilous before declaring an emergency.
B) contact ATC and advise that an urgency condition exists and request priority consideration.
C) not hesitate to declare an emergency and obtain an amended clearance.

4151
Why is frost considered hazardous to flight operation?
A) Frost causes early airflow separation resulting in a loss of lift.
B) Frost decreases control effectiveness.
C) Frost changes the basic aerodynamic shape of the airfoil.

4450
When can a VFR on Top clearance be assigned by ATC?
A) Only upon request of the pilot when conditions are indicated to be suitable.
B) When VFR conditions exist, but there is a layer of clouds below the MEA.
C) Any time suitable conditions exist and ATC wishes to expedite traffic flow.

4061
What is the recommended procedure for transitioning from VFR to IFR on a composite flight plan?
A) Prior to transitioning to IFR, contact the nearest FSS, close the VFR portion, and request ATC clearance.
B) Prior to reaching the proposed point for change to IFR, contact ARTCC, request your IFR clearance, and instruct them to cancel the VFR flight plan.
C) Upon reaching the proposed point for change to IFR, contact the nearest FSS and cancel your VFR flight plan, then contact ARTCC and request an IFR clearance.

4079
Which sources of aeronautical information, when used collectively, provide the latest status of airport conditions (e.g., runway closures, runway lighting, snow conditions)?
A) Aeronautical Information Manual, aeronautical charts, and Distant (D) Notice to Airmen (NOTAM's).
B) Airport Facility Directory, FDC NOTAM's, and Local (L) NOTAM's.
C) Airport Facility Directory, Distant (D) NOTAM's, and Local (L) NOTAM's.

4400
For operations off established airways at 17,000 feet MSL in the contiguous U.S., (H) Class VORTAC facilities used to define a direct route of flight should be no farther apart than
A) 100 NM.
B) 200 NM.
C) 75 NM.

4519
What is the required flight visibility and distance from clouds if you are operating in Class E airspace at 9,500 feet MSL with a VFR-on-Top clearance during daylight hours?
A) 3 SM, 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal.
B) 3 SM, 500 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal.
C) 5 SM, 500 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal.

4163
Fog is usually prevalent in industrial areas because of
A) increased temperatures due to industrial heating.
B) atmospheric stabilization around cities.
C) an abundance of condensation nuclei from combustion products.

4781
Which approach and landing objective is assured when the pilot remains on the proper glidepath of the VASI?
A) Safe obstruction clearance in the approach area.
B) Course guidance from the visual descent point to touchdown.
C) Continuation of course guidance after transition to VFR.

4115
What type of clouds will be formed if very stable moist air is forced upslope?
A) Vertical clouds with increasing height.
B) First stratified clouds and then vertical clouds.
C) Stratified clouds with little vertical development.

4165
In what localities is advection fog most likely to occur?
A) Coastal areas.
B) Level inland areas.
C) Mountain slopes.

4098
Steady precipitation, in contrast to showers, preceding a front is an indication of
A) stratiform clouds with moderate turbulence.
B) cummuliform clouds with little or no turbulence.
C) stratiform clouds with little or no turbulence.

4449
Which rules apply to the pilot in command when operating on a VFR on Top clearance?
A) VFR only.
B) VFR when "in the clear'' and IFR when "in the clouds.''
C) VFR and IFR.

4375
The aircraft's transponder fails during flight within Class D airspace.
A) The pilot should immediately request clearance to depart the Class D airspace.
B) Pilot must immediately request priority handling to proceed to destination.
C) No deviation is required because a transponder is not required in Class D airspace.

4034
Which limitation is imposed on the holder of a Commercial Pilot Certificate if that person does not hold an instrument rating?
A) The carrying of passengers for hire on cross country flights is limited to 50 NM and the carrying of passengers for hire at night is prohibited.
B) That person is limited to private pilot privileges at night.
C) The carrying of passengers or property for hire on cross country flights at night is limited to a radius of 50 NM.

4251
What is the expected duration of an individual microburst?
A) Seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation.
B) Two minutes with maximum winds lasting approximately 1 minute.
C) One microburst may continue for as long as 2 to 4 hours.

4092
Which is true regarding the use of airborne weather-avoidance radar for the recognition of certain weather conditions?
A) The clear area between intense echoes indicates that visual sighting of storms can be maintained when flying between the echoes.
B) The radarscope provides no assurance of avoiding instrument weather conditions.
C) The avoidance of hail is assured when flying between and just clear of the most intense echoes.

4300
(Refer to figure 44.) What aircraft equipment code should be entered in block 3 of the flight plan?
A) R.
B) A.
C) C.

4441
Which procedure is recommended while climbing to an assigned altitude on the airway?
A) Climb on the centerline of the airway except when maneuvering to avoid other air traffic in VFR conditions.
B) Climb far enough to the right side of the airway to avoid climbing or descending traffic coming from the opposite direction if in VFR conditions.
C) Climb slightly on the right side of the airway when in VFR conditions.

4503
(Refer to figure 89.) What are the oxygen requirements for an IFR flight northeast bound from Bryce Canyon on V382 at the lowest appropriate altitude in an unpressurized aircraft?
A) The required minimum crew must be provided and use supplemental oxygen for that part of the flight of more than 30 minutes.
B) The required minimum crew must be provided and use supplemental oxygen for that part of the flight of more than 30 minutes, and the passengers must be provided supplemental oxygen.
C) The required minimum crew must be provided and use supplemental oxygen, and all occupants must be provided supplemental oxygen for the entire flight above 15,000 feet.

4729
Which range facility associated with the ILS is identified by the last two letters of the localizer identification group?
A) Inner marker.
B) Middle compass locator.
C) Outer marker.

4138
Where does wind shear occur?
A) Wherever there is an abrupt decrease in pressure and/or temperature.
B) Exclusively in thunderstorms.
C) With either a wind shift or a windspeed gradient at any level in the atmosphere.

4113
If the air temperature is +8 °C at an elevation of 1,350 feet and a standard (average) temperature lapse rate exists, what will be the approximate freezing level?
A) 9,350 feet MSL.
B) 3,350 feet MSL.
C) 5,350 feet MSL.

4305
(Refer to figure 46.) What are the hours of operation (local time) of the ATIS for the Yakima Air Terminal when daylight savings time is in effect?
A) 0700 to 2300 local.
B) 0600 to 2200 local.
C) 0500 to 2100 local.

4169
Which conditions are favorable for the formation of radiation fog?
A) Clear sky, little or no wind, small temperature/dewpoint spread, and over a land surface.
B) Cloudy sky and a light wind moving saturated warm air over a cool surface.
C) Moist air moving over colder ground or water.

4811
How can an instrument pilot best overcome spatial disorientation?
A) Rely on kinesthetic sense.
B) Read and interpret the flight instruments, and act accordingly.
C) Use a very rapid cross check.

4435
Reception of signals from an off airway radio facility may be inadequate to identify the fix at the designated MEA. In this case, which altitude is designated for the fix?
A) MCA.
B) MRA.
C) MOCA.

4143
During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts?
A) Mature.
B) Cumulus.
C) Dissipating.

4384
How should the pilot make a VOR receiver check when the airplane is located on the designated checkpoint on the airport surface?
A) Set the OBS on the designated radial. The CDI must center within plus or minus 4° of that radial with a FROM indication.
B) With the aircraft headed directly toward the VOR and the OBS set to 000°, the CDI should center within plus or minus 4° of that radial with a TO indication.
C) Set the OBS on 180° plus or minus 4°; the CDI should center with a FROM indication.

4337
(Refer to figure 64.) The course deviation indicator (CDI) are centered. Which indications on the No. 1 and No. 2 VOR receivers over the Lafayette Regional Airport would meet the requirements for the VOR receiver check?
VOR TO/FROM VOR TO/FROM
No. 1 No. 2

A) 341° FROM 330° FROM
B) 162° TO 346° FROM
C) 160° FROM 162° FROM

4653
Refer to figure 123.) What minimum navigation equipment is required to complete the VOR/DME-A procedure?
A) One VOR receiver.
B) One VOR receiver and DME.
C) Two VOR receivers and DME.

4052
What is the maximum IFR altitude you may fly in an unpressurized aircraft without providing passengers with supplemental oxygen?
A) 12,500 feet.
B) 15,000 feet.
C) 14,000 feet.

4512
(Refer to figure 91.) What lighting is indicated on the chart for Jackson Hole Airport?
A) Lights on prior request.
B) No lighting available.
C) Pilot controlled lighting.

4102
What temperature condition is indicated if wet snow is encountered at your flight altitude?
A) You are flying from a warm air mass into a cold air mass.
B) The temperature is below freezing at your altitude.
C) The temperature is above freezing at your altitude.

4110
Which of the following defines the type of altitude used when maintaining FL 210?
A) Indicated.
B) Pressure.
C) Calibrated.

4404
Absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast specifically implies that
A) the ceiling is more than 5,000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more.
B) the ceiling is at least 3,000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more.
C) the sky condition is clear and visibility is unrestricted.

4787
(Refer to figure 136.) Which illustration depicts a "slightly low'' (2.8°) indication?
A) 10.
B) 9.
C) 11.

4442
Which clearance procedures may be issued by ATC without prior pilot request?
A) DP's, STAR's, and visual approaches.
B) Contact and visual approaches.
C) DP's, STAR's, and contact approaches.

4094
A common type of ground or surface based temperature inversion is that which is produced by
A) warm air being lifted rapidly aloft in the vicinity of mountainous terrain.
B) the movement of colder air over warm air, or the movement of warm air under cold air.
C) ground radiation on clear, cool nights when the wind is light.

4795
Which type of runway lighting consists of a pair of synchronized flashing lights, one on each side of the runway threshold?
A) HIRL.
B) RAIL.
C) REIL.

4029
You intend to carry passengers for hire on a night VFR flight in a single engine airplane within a 25 mile radius of the departure airport. You are required to possess at least which rating(s)?
A) A Commercial Pilot Certificate with a single engine land rating.
B) A Private Pilot Certificate with a single engine land and instrument airplane rating.
C) A Commercial Pilot Certificate with a single engine and instrument (airplane) rating.

4122
What determines the structure or type of clouds which form as a result of air being forced to ascend?
A) The stability of the air before lifting occurs.
B) The amount of condensation nuclei present after lifting occurs.
C) The method by which the air is lifted.

4070
Preferred IFR routes beginning with a fix, indicate that departing aircraft will normally be routed to the fix by
A) direct route only.
B) the established airway(s) between the departure airport and the fix.
C) an instrument departure procedure (DP), or radar vectors.

4443
What is the significance of an ATC clearance which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?
A) The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching the IAF serving the destination airport, then execute the published approach procedure.
B) The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and including 6,000, but each change in altitude must be reported to ATC.
C) It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and including 6,000.

4536
(Refer to figure 94.) What colors are runway holding position signs?
A) Red with a white background.
B) Yellow with a black background.
C) White with a red background.

4105
What causes surface winds to flow across the isobars at an angle rather than parallel to the isobars?
A) Surface friction.
B) Coriolis force.
C) The greater density of the air at the surface.

4017
What minimum conditions are necessary for the instrument approaches required for IFR currency?
A) At least three approaches must be made in the same category of aircraft to be flown.
B) The approaches may be made in an aircraft, approved instrument ground trainer, or any combination of these.
C) At least three approaches must be made in the same category and class of aircraft to be flown.

4134
What are the four families of clouds?
A) Stratus, cumulus, nimbus, and cirrus.
B) High, middle, low, and those with extensive vertical development.
C) Clouds formed by updrafts, fronts, cooling layers of air, and precipitation into warm air.

4013
After your recent IFR experience lapses, how much time do you have before you must pass an instrument competency check to act as pilot in command under IFR?
A) 6 months.
B) 12 months.
C) 90 days.

4788
(Refer to figure 136.) Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is on a glidepath higher than 3.5°?
A) 11.
B) 8.
C) 9.

4796
The primary purpose of runway end identifier lights, installed at many airfields, is to provide
A) rapid identification of the approach end of the runway during reduced visibility.
B) rapid identification of the primary runway during reduced visibility.
C) a warning of the final 3,000 feet of runway remaining as viewed from the takeoff or approach position.

4033
Before beginning any flight under IFR, the pilot in command must become familiar with all available information concerning that flight. In addition, the pilot must
A) list an alternate airport on the flight plan and become familiar with the instrument approaches to that airport.
B) list an alternate airport on the flight plan and confirm adequate takeoff and landing performance at the destination airport.
C) be familiar with the runway lengths at airports of intended use, and the alternatives available if the flight cannot be completed.

4327
(Refer to figures 59 and 60.) What are the operating hours (local standard time) of the Houston EFAS?
A) 0700 to 2300.
B) 1800 to 1000.
C) 0600 to 2200.

4432
The MEA assures acceptable navigational signal coverage and
A) DME response.
B) radar coverage.
C) meets obstacle clearance requirements.

4797
(Refer to figure 138.) What night operations, if any, are authorized between the approach end of the runway and the threshold lights?
A) Only taxi operations are permitted in the area short of the threshold lights.
B) No aircraft operations are permitted short of the threshold lights.
C) Taxi and takeoff operations are permitted, providing the takeoff operations are toward the visible green threshold lights.

4461
While on an IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an ATC clearance. What action must be taken?
A) Squawk 7700 for the duration of the emergency.
B) Notify ATC of the deviation as soon as possible.
C) Submit a detailed report to the chief of the ATC facility within 48 hours.

4010
Which flight time may be logged as instrument time when on an instrument flight plan?
A) Only the time you controlled the aircraft solely by reference to flight instruments.
B) Only the time you were flying in IFR weather conditions.
C) All of the time the aircraft was not controlled by ground references.

4815
Which procedure is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation?
A) Rely on the indications of the flight instruments.
B) Reduce head and eye movements to the extent possible.
C) Rely on the kinesthetic sense.

4463
Which procedure should you follow if you experience two way communications failure while holding at a holding fix with an EFC time? (The holding fix is not the same as the approach fix.)
A) Proceed immediately to the approach fix and hold until EFC.
B) Depart the holding fix at the EFC time.
C) Depart the holding fix to arrive at the approach fix as close as possible to the EFC time.

4073
(Refer to figure 1.) The time entered in block 12 for an IFR flight should be based on which fuel quantity?
A) Total fuel required for the flight.
B) The amount of fuel required to fly to the destination airport, then to the alternate, plus a 45 minute reserve.
C) Total useable fuel on board.

4078
For IFR planning purposes, what are the compulsory reporting points when using VOR/DME or VORTAC fixes to define a direct route not on established airways?
A) At the changeover points.
B) Fixes selected to define the route.
C) There are no compulsory reporting points unless advised by ATC.

4042
If an unpressurized aircraft is operated above 12,500 feet MSL, but not more than 14,000 feet MSL, for a period of 2 hours 20 minutes, how long during that time is the minimum flightcrew required to use supplemental oxygen?
A) 2 hours 20 minutes.
B) 1 hour 50 minutes.
C) 1 hour 20 minutes.

4457
What minimums must be considered in selecting an altitude when operating with a VFR on Top clearance?
A) At least 500 feet above the lowest MEA, or appropriate MOCA, and at least 1,000 feet above the existing meteorological condition.
B) At least 1,000 feet above the lowest MEA, appropriate MOCA, or existing meteorological condition.
C) Minimum IFR altitude, minimum distance from clouds, and visibility appropriate to altitude selected.

4047
Your aircraft had the static pressure system and altimeter tested and inspected on January 5, of this year, and was found to comply with FAA standards. These systems must be reinspected and approved for use in controlled airspace under IFR by
A) January 5, 2 years hence.
B) January 5, next year.
C) January 31, 2 years hence.

4146
Which procedure is recommended if a pilot should unintentionally penetrate embedded thunderstorm activity?
A) Set power for recommended turbulence penetration airspeed and attempt to maintain a level flight attitude.
B) Reverse aircraft heading or proceed toward an area of known VFR conditions.
C) Reduce airspeed to maneuvering speed and maintain a constant altitude.

4238
Hazardous wind shear is commonly encountered near the ground
A) during periods of strong temperature inversion and near thunderstorms.
B) during periods when the wind velocity is stronger than 35 knots and near mountain valleys.
C) during periods when the wind velocity is stronger than 35 knots.

4433
You have filed an IFR flight plan with a VFR on Top clearance in lieu of an assigned altitude. If you receive this clearance and fly a course of 180°, at what altitude should you fly? (Assume VFR conditions.)
A) Any IFR altitude which will enable you to remain in VFR conditions.
B) An odd thousand foot MSL altitude plus 500 feet.
C) An even thousand foot MSL altitude plus 500 feet.

4779
If an approach is being made to a runway that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all the VASI lights appear red as the airplane reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A) start a climb to reach the proper glidepath.
B) level off momentarily to intercept the proper approach path.
C) continue at the same rate of descent if the runway is in sight.

4023
What recent instrument flight experience requirements must be met before you may act as pilot in command of an airplane under IFR?
A) A minimum of six instrument approaches, at least three of which must be in an aircraft within the preceding 6 calendar months.
B) A minimum of six instrument approaches in an airplane, or an approved simulator (airplane) or ground trainer, within the preceding 6 calendar months.
C) A minimum of six instrument approaches in an aircraft, at least three of which must be in the same category within the preceding 6 calendar months.

4444
What is the procedure for setting the altimeter when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or higher on a direct flight off airways?
A) Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then set to 29.92" Hg.
B) Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before takeoff.
C) Set the altimeter to the current reported setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon reaching 18,000 feet.

4252
Maximum downdrafts in a microburst encounter may be as strong as
A) 8,000 feet per minute.
B) 6,000 feet per minute.
C) 7,000 feet per minute.

4382
(Refer to figure 81.) When checking a dual VOR system by use of a VOT, which illustration indicates the VOR's are satisfactory?
A) 1.
B) 4.
C) 2.

4160
If you fly into severe turbulence, which flight condition should you attempt to maintain?
A) Constant airspeed (VA).
B) Constant altitude and constant airspeed.
C) Level flight attitude.

4473
Which airspace is defined as a transition area when designated in conjunction with an airport which has a prescribed IAP?
A) The Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet or more above the surface and terminating at the base of the overlying controlled airspace.
B) The Class C airspace extending from the surface to 700 or 1,200 feet AGL, where designated.
C) That Class D airspace extending from the surface and terminating at the base of the continental control area.

4141
What is indicated by the term "embedded thunderstorms''?
A) Thunderstorms are predicted to develop in a stable air mass.
B) Thunderstorms are obscured by massive cloud layers and cannot be seen.
C) Severe thunderstorms are embedded within a squall line.

4391
When making an airborne VOR check, what is the maximum allowable tolerance between the two indicators of a dual VOR system (units independent of each other except the antenna)?
A) 6° between the two indicated radials of a VOR.
B) Plus or minus 4° when set to identical radials of a VOR.
C) 4° between the two indicated radials of a VOR.

4076
When may a pilot cancel the IFR flight plan prior to completing the flight?
A) Only in VFR conditions outside positive controlled airspace.
B) Any time.
C) Only if an emergency occurs.

4153
What is an operational consideration if you fly into rain which freezes on impact?
A) You have flown through a cold front.
B) You have flown into an area of thunderstorms.
C) Temperatures are above freezing at some higher altitude.

4410
What indication should a pilot receive when a VOR station is undergoing maintenance and may be considered unreliable?
A) No coded identification, but possible navigation indications.
B) Coded identification, but no navigation indications.
C) A voice recording on the VOR frequency announcing that the VOR is out of service for maintenance.

4714
Which procedure should be followed by a pilot who is circling to land in a Category B airplane, but is maintaining a speed 5 knots faster than the maximum specified for that category?
A) Use Category D minimums since they apply to all circling approaches.
B) Use Category B minimums.
C) Use the approach minimums appropriate for Category C.

4051
An aircraft operated under 14 CFR part 91 IFR is required to have which of the following?
A) Gyroscopic direction indicator.
B) Radar altimeter.
C) Dual VOR system.

4424
Upon intercepting the assigned radial, the controller advises you that you are on the airway and to "RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This phrase means that
A) you are still in radar contact, but must make position reports.
B) you are to assume responsibility for your own navigation.
C) radar services are terminated and you will be responsible for position reports.

4707
What wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest period of time?
A) Light quartering tailwind.
B) Direct tailwind.
C) Direct headwind.

4159
What enhances the growth rate of precipitation?
A) Cyclonic movement.
B) Advective action.
C) Upward currents.

4806
A sloping cloud formation, an obscured horizon, and a dark scene spread with ground lights and stars can create an illusion known as
A) elevator illusions.
B) false horizons.
C) autokinesis.

4452
When on a VFR on Top clearance, the cruising altitude is based on
A) magnetic course.
B) magnetic heading.
C) true course.

4095
How much colder than standard temperature is the forecast temperature at 9,000 feet, as indicated in the following excerpt from the Winds and Temperature Aloft Forecast?
FT 6000 9000
0737-04 1043-10

A) 10 °C.
B) 3 °C.
C) 7 °C.

4421
During a flight, the controller advises "traffic 2 o'clock 5 miles southbound.'' The pilot is holding 20° correction for a crosswind from the right. Where should the pilot look for the traffic?
A) 40° to the right of the airplane's nose.
B) Straight ahead.
C) 20° to the right of the airplane's nose.

4780
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A) One light projector with three colors: red, green, and amber.
B) Three glidepaths, with the center path indicated by a white light.
C) Two visual glidepaths for the runway.

4518
What is the minimum flight visibility and distance from clouds for flight at 10,500 feet with a VFR-on-Top clearance during daylight hours? (Class E airspace.)
A) 5 SM, 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 1 mile horizontal.
B) 5 SM, 1,000 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 1 mile horizontal.
C) 3 SM, 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal.

4025
The pilot in command of a civil aircraft must have an instrument rating only when operating
A) in weather conditions less than the minimum prescribed for VFR flight.
B) under IFR, in weather conditions less than the minimum for VFR flight, or in class A airspace.
C) under IFR in positive control airspace.

4809
Why is hypoxia particularly dangerous during flights with one pilot?
A) Symptoms of hypoxia may be difficult to recognize before the pilot's reactions are affected.
B) Night vision may be so impaired that the pilot cannot see other aircraft.
C) The pilot may not be able to control the aircraft even if using oxygen.

4167
What situation is most conducive to the formation of radiation fog?
A) Moist, tropical air moving over cold, offshore water.
B) Warm, moist air over low, flatland areas on clear, calm nights.
C) The movement of cold air over much warmer water.
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