BOEING 747-400 - Automatic Flight

Q 1. During preflight, what flight director roll and pitch modes are activated by placing a Flight Director Switch to ON?

A. V/S and HDG HOLD modes are activated.
B. V/S and HDG SEL modes are activated.
C. TO/GA mode is activated.
D. THR REF and V/S modes are activated.

Q 2. What occurs when the Autothrottle Switch is moved to OFF?

A. Autothrottle disconnects
B. Autothrottle can only be engaged in VNAV mode
C. Autothrottle can be engaged in any mode

Q 3. Which roll modes are affected by the Bank Limit Selector?

A. All roll modes are affected.
B. Only the HDG SEL mode is affected.
C. Only LOC and APP modes are affected.
D. Only the LNAV mode is affected.

Q 4. What is accomplished by ensuring the Autopilot Disengage Bar is in the up position?

A. Previously selected autopilot is engaged.
B. All autopilots disengage.
C. Autopilot engagement is enabled.
D. An amber stripe is exposed.

Q 5. When are the flight director command bars displayed on the PFD during preflight?

A. When the FD Switch is ON or an autopilot is engaged.
B. When the FD Switch is ON.
C. When VNAV or LNAV is selected.
D. When any pitch mode is selected.

Q 6. What indicates a pitch or roll mode fault?

A. An amber line through a pitch or roll mode annunciation.
B. An amber line through the FD annunciation on the PFD.
C. An OFF Flag on the PFD.
D. A red line through a pitch or roll mode annunciation.

Q 7. White LNAV annunciation in the PFD indicates:

A. LNAV is armed.
B. LNAV is engaged.
C. LNAV mode failure.

Q 8. LNAV activates:

A. When within 2.5 NM of the active leg.
B. When within 5.0 NM of the active leg.
C. When on an intercept heading to the active leg, distance to the active leg is not relevant.

Q 9. During takeoff, at which speed will the autothrottle enter the HOLD mode?

A. At 100 knots.
B. At 80 knots.
C. At V2.
D. At 65 knots.

Q 10. What does the HOLD mode accomplish?

A. The mode moves throttles to hold takeoff thrust.
B. The mode moves throttles to hold selected speed.
C. The pilot can set the thrust levers manually.
D. The mode records barometric altitude for LNAV and VNAV engagement.

Q 11. What pitch mode is engaged by selecting an autopilot in Command with both Flight Director Switches OFF while in flight?

A. The V/S mode is engaged.
B. The ALT mode is engaged.
C. The SPD mode is engaged.
D. The VNAV SPD mode is engaged.

Q 12. What is the indication of LNAV or VNAV mode engagement?
A. Annunciation of LNAV or VNAV in white on both PFD flight mode annunciators.
B. Annunciation of LNAV or VNAV on the PFD’s and ND’s.
C. Centering of the command bars on both PFD’s.
D. Annunciation of LNAV or VNAV in green on both PFD flight mode annunciators.

Q 13. When the Left Autopilot is in command and both flight directors are switched from OFF to ON in flight, in which pitch and roll modes do the flight directors activate?

A. They independently activate is whatever modes are selected for them by the pilot.
B. The Left FD activates in the same modes as the A/P, and the right FD will use whatever mode is selected by the pilot.
C. The first F/D Switch positioned to ON activates the F/D in the selected A/P mode(s).
D. They activate in the HDG HOLD and V/S modes.

Q 14. What command altitude do the Flight Control Computers (FCC) use to command level-off when engaged in a VNAV ALT mode?

A. The next altitude constraint on the RTE LEGS page active waypoint.
B. The MCP selected altitude.
C. The FMC target altitude.
D. The higher of the FMC target altitude or MCP selected altitude.

Q 15. In the FLCH pitch mode, where is the commanded airspeed displayed?

A. On PFD Command Speed and the Mode Control Panel IAS/Mach Window.
B. On the PFD reference Airspeed Bug.
C. On the ND and FMS-CDU.
E. On the PFD and ND.

Q 16. When the Go-Around function of the TO/GA mode is engaged by a single push of the TO/GA Switch with no A/P or FD active, what is the autothrottle commanded to?

A. Commanded to climb thrust limit and THR REF is the mode.
B. Commanded to IAS Mach Window speed and SPD is the mode.
C. Commanded to provide a 2000 foot per minute climb and THR is the mode.
D. Commanded to provide a 2000 foot per minute climb and THR REF is the mode.

Q 17. When does the go-around function of the TO/GA mode arm for the AFDS and autothrottle system?

A. When below 2500 feet AGL.
B. When flaps are out of up.
C. When the gear is lowered for landing.
D. At the Outer Marker.

Q 18. During autoland in a crosswind requiring a crab angle between 5 and 10 degrees, the autopilot initiates runway alignment at approximately what altitude?

A. Beginning at 50 feet.
B. Beginning at 1, 000.
C. At 500 feet.
D. At 200 feet.

Q 19. Is the runway alignment mode annunciated on the PFD\'s?

A. Yes.
B. No.

Q 20. At what radio altitude does the autopilot start the landing flare?

A. Flare begins at 40 to 60 feet.
B. Flare begins at 65 to 100 feet.
C. Flare begins at 25 feet.
D. Flare begins at the inner marker.

Q21. What is the roll mode annunciation for a Go-Around?

A. The roll mode is TRK HOLD.
B. The roll mode is HDG HOLD.
C. The roll mode is LNAV.
D. The roll mode is TO/GA.

Q 22. What is the pitch mode annunciation for a Go-Around?

A. TO/GA
B. SPD
C. VNAV
D. GA

Q 23. What is the target climb rate for a single push of the TO/GA Switch in the Go-Around mode?

A. The climb rate is 1,000 feet per minute.
B. The climb rate is 2,000 feet per minute.
C. The climb rate is 1,500 feet per minute.
D. The climb rate is 2,500 feet per minute.

Q 24. During go-around above 400 feet radio altitude or takeoff with LNAV and VNAV not armed, which action changes the TO/GA flight mode annunciations?

A. Selecting different roll and pitch modes.
B. Selecting a VOR frequency.
C. Selecting the THR switch.
D. Push either TO/GA switch a second time.

Q 25. During an approach, when is the Go-Around mode inhibited?

A. When ROLLOUT is annunciated on the flight mode annunciation.
B. Two seconds after passing the middle marker.
C. Two seconds after radio altitude decreases through 5 feet.
D. Two seconds after touchdown.

Q 26. What do the autopilots control to track the localizer centerline while in the rollout mode?

A. Autopilots control rudder and nose wheel steering.
B. Autopilots control rudder and speedbrakes.
c. Autopilots control nose wheel steering only.
D. Autopilots control the autobrakes.

Q 27. After an automatic landing, when does rollout guidance stop?

A. Until the pilot applies manual braking.
B. Until the autopilots are disengaged.
C. Until the autobrakes disengage.
D. Until the speedbrake lever is placed in the DOWN position.

Q 28. What happens to the autopilots when the Autopilot Disengage Bar is pushed down?

A. The autopilots disengage, but permits autopilot re-engagement.
B. The autopilots disengage only if a control wheel disengage switch is pushed at the same time.
C. The autopilots and autothrottle both disengage.
D. The autopilots disengage and prevents re-engagement.

Q 29. When are Flare and Rollout modes available?

A. During a manual landing.
B. When LAND 1 is annunciated.
C. When LAND 2 is annunciated.
D. When GLIDESLOPE and LOCALIZER are captured.

Q 30. Below what altitude is disengaging the autopilot and turning off both Flight Directors the only means for deactivating go-around?

A. Below 700 feet.
B. Below 600 feet.
C. Below 500 feet.
D. Below 400 feet.

Q 31. How is the autothrottle normally disengaged after an automatic landing?

A. By autopilot mode selection.
B. By selecting reverse thrust.
C. It automatically disengages at touchdown.
D. It disengages when the ROLLOUT mode engages.

Q 32. In wings-level flight with both Flight Directors OFF, which roll mode is engaged by pushing the first autopilot in command?

A. The F/D engages in the LNAV mode.
B. The F/D engages in the Heading Select mode.
C. The F/D engages in the Heading Hold mode.
D. The F/D engages in the Track Hold mode.

Q 33. Which of the following statements is not correct when pushing the SPD switch on the Mode Control Panel?

A. The A/T SPD mode is selected.
B. SPD is displayed on both PFD Flight Mode Annunciators.
C. The A/T controls thrust to maintain IAS or Mach displayed in IAS/MACH window subject to minimum and maximum speed limits.
D. Thrust is set to the Thrust Reference Limit.

Q 34. In VNAV, pushing the THR Switch will not change the A/T mode.

A. True.
B. False.

Q 35. What feature is initiated by pushing the Altitude Selector Knob within 50 nm of the T/D with the MCP altitude window set at a lower altitude?

A. The DES DIR mode.
B. The DES NOW mode.
C. The cruise descent mode.
D. A normal descent.

Q 36. A go-around can be accomplished with:

A. Single autopilot
B. FD only
C. Multi-autopilots
D. All of the above.

Q 37. Which of the following conditions about a go-around is not correct?

A. TO/GA can command a go-around when a single autopilot is engaged.
B. TO/GA can command a go-around when the FD is engaged.
C. TO/GA can command a go-around when multiple autopilots are engaged.
D. TO/GA go-around requires that both TO/GA switches be pushed simultaneously.

Q 38. What AFDS roll and pitch modes are used during windshear recovery?

A. TO/GA roll and V/S pitch modes are used.
B. TO/GA roll and TO/GA pitch modes are used.
C. LNAV roll and TO/GA pitch modes are used.
D. HDG HOLD roll and V/S pitch modes are used.

Q 39. Which of the following statements is correct when both PFD Roll Modes have a white LNAV display?

A. LNAV is armed.
B. LNAV is engaged.
C. LNAV has captured the route.
D. LNAV is unreliable.

Q 40. Circumnavigating CBs, maximum bank(minimum radius) can be obtained in:

A. LNAV (Bank LIMIT Selector 25°).
B. HDG SEL (Bank LIMIT Selector 25°).
C. HDG HOLD (Bank LIMIT Selector 25°).

Q 41. Autothrottle is disconnected by a single push of an Autothrottle Disconnect Switch, a second push resets:

A. >AUTOTHROT DISC EICAS and disarms Autothrottle.
B. Master caution lights and disarms Autothrottle.
C. Master caution lights and EICAS caution message >AUTOTHROT DISC.

Q 41. During a rolling takeoff, with a strong headwind, TO/GA is pushed when the speed is > 50 KIAS:

A. A/T will not activate, but can be engaged above 400 feet.
B. A/T activation is independent of the speed.
C. A/T will activate as long as the speed is below 80 KIAS.

Q 42. After localizer and glideslope capture with A/P ON, how can LOC and G/S modes be deactivated in case of a runway change?

A. By selecting basic modes HDG SEL and V/S.
B. By disengaging the autopilot and positioning both F/D switches OFF.
C. By another push of the Approach (APP) switch.

Q 43. VNAV ALT is annunciated. To continue the climb or descent:

A. Change the MCP altitude and pull the altitude selector or change the pitch mode.
B. Push the Vertical Navigation (VNAV) Switch.
C. Change the MCP altitude and push the altitude selector or change the pitch mode.

Q 44. During VNAV climb with MCP altitude set below FMS cruising altitude:

A. The aircraft will level off at MCP selected altitude (VNAV ALT).
B. The aircraft will level off at MCP selected altitude (VNAV PTH).
C. The aircraft continues climb to the cruising altitude (VNAV SPD).

Q 45. VNAV PTH is the active pitch mode. How can you change the speed:

A. Push and rotate the IAS/MACH selector.
B. Push the FLCH switch (this action opens the IAS/MACH window) and rotate the IAS/MACH selector
C. Both answers are correct.

Q 46. During an ILS approach, the first push of either TO/GA switch:

A. Advances autothrottle to thrust reference (THR REF) at full go-around thrust.
B. SPD is annunciated on the PFDs.
C. Activates autothrottle in thrust (THR) to establish a 2000 FPM climb.

Q 46. Go-around arms and the reference thrust limit changes to GA when:

A. Flaps are out of UP or glideslope is captured.
B. At localizer capture.
C. When pushing the Approach APP switch on the MCP.

Q 47. Localizer captures when intercept track angle is within:

A. 80 degrees of localizer course.
B. 90 degrees of localizer course.
C. 120 degrees of localizer course.
D. 150 degrees of localizer course.

Q 48. Reaching the go-around altitude after an ILS approach (A/P in CMD and N-1):

A. Rudder has to be applied manually when the A/P systems revert to a single A/P in CMD configuration.
B. Asymmetric thrust compensation is active as long as an A/P is in CMD.
C. Rudder has to be applied manually when TO/GA is pushed.

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